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Ben Asher

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Ben Asher last won the day on August 17

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About Ben Asher


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    Philology, hermeneutics, Intercultural studies, Classical Hebrew, modern Japanese, and language acquisition.

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  1. @atpollard thank you for chiming in! What you state has also been been one of my strongly held assumptions or beliefs about what Jesus did. On the other hand the idea that Jesus roamed around breaking the law or that he changed the law and thus made it easier for him to fulfill is neither persuasive nor appealing. Grace and Peace
  2. Greetings @Becky ! And thanks for asking Sorry about that! I wrote in a bit of a hurry as I saw the question about the 20 minutes before I needed to go to work. I will take my time to elaborate and full define my terms next time around. I should probably also make clear or reveal some my presupposition and assumptions. Concerning Jesus while I believe he has the power and every right to change the Torah/Law while also holdding to the concept that Jesus did not cheat his way to fulfilling the Law during is ministry on earth, I believe he fulfilled the law perfectly and completely as it was. Grace and Peace
  3. @NorrinRadd I wish I could shake you hand! you are exactly right and this something I wish more would recognize! Then we are in agreement! SMILE! This is why in my disclaimer I used of the past tense indicative of be verb 'was' as meaning used to be in past time. And before a person of Jewish ethnicity becomes a Christian he/she can be said to be under the Torah, but not after. Grace and Peace POST SCRIPT .................................................................................................................................................. By the way what you referred to as my conclusion was a my disclaimer not a conclusion.
  4. The Ger toshav / resident aliens (Exodus 12:45 / Exodus 12:48) could could not partake of the Passover unless he was circumcised thus becoming a member of the camp. Although speculative it seem to me the rest of did actually become member as the term Toshav in its normal meaning may hint at such. Moving on we notice Exodus 12:49 as well continues use the term Ger, rather than the term goy / goyim that is almost always translated as nations or gentiles. We find that there is one Torah for the Ger (foreigner born) and one for the Ezrach (natural born /citizen). The text however does not say that there was on Torah for the Gentile Goy/Goyim and the children of Israel. Peter is the one who states that he has never eaten anything common or unclean up until that point of course. No interpretation or guess work need Acts 10:14 specifically attributes the statement to Peter. Grace and Peace
  5. On another thread it may be interesting to explore the questions: (a) Did, Jesus do with the food laws in Mark 7:1 ~ Mark 7:23? (a2) If, so why did Peter later claim to never have eaten anything unclean(Acts 10:14)? Since Jesus spent time with Peter and they obviously shared the same meals wouldn't Peter have know that the food laws had been done away with by the types of food Jesus and the Discipline could now in theory eat? (b) What types of food did Jesus eat? Did he keep kosher or after the event described in Mark chapter 7 did he immediately stop observing the Torah? (c) where does Jesus in the text of Mark chapter 7 mention food laws of the Torah? The pharisees mention the washing of hands (Mark 7:2, Mark 7:3) and the text makes mention of other extra Biblical traditions concerning washing (,Mark 7:4) but none of those seem to have anything to do with the food laws of the Torah? (d) Jesus takes issues with the Pharisees extra Biblical traditions (Mark 7:8 and Mark 7:9) are those what are meant by food laws? Disclaimer: Now, having stated the above, the food laws of the Torah (at least in my understanding) were never binding on anyone other than the Children of Israel the Jews therefore most modern Christians were never under the food laws unless of course they came from a observant Jewish background. I am far more concerned about how various individuals go about the process of interpretation than the food laws, the sabbath, and theology.
  6. Good point @IchimaruGin ! I like that you used the term 'instances I think this correct defines issue that was described regarding the claimed SDA individuals who allegedly committed fornication. This is probably why questions 1, 2, 3 I asked about this alleged incident described in post #386 remain answered: (1) Do some SDA groups officially actually condone fornication? (2) Is fornication particularly common on an epidemic in the SDA? (3) Are, other Christian denominations more free from wayward members and fornication than the SDA? From the very little I know of the SDA I see no evidence to suggest that the alleged incident is indicative of the common behavior of all SDA members, nor for that matter of the official theology or guidelines of the SDA denomination as a whole. Agreed with the above.
  7. Greetings @Faber Thanks for taking the time to restate your idea in a different way. I think I now understand the point you were trying to convey. Again thank you for clarifying how you use English theological jargon this is very helpful in understanding some of the exchanges on this forum. I find that English theological terms like NT/NC and OT/OC often seem to be used in a very vague way, or as synonyms for on another. Grace and Peace
  8. @Faber (1) Do some SDA groups officially actually condone fornication? (2) Is fornication particularly common on an epidemic in the SDA? (3) Are, other Christian denominations more free from wayward members and fornication than the SDA? I do not know as I have never run into SDA members off of these forums. The only SDA member that I know something about is the great lexicographer Andrew N. Nelson and his magnum opus The Modern Reader's Japanese-English Character Dictionary. @Faber question do you mean to say that for you: The New Covenant is one and the same with the literature known as the New Testament? If, yes does this mean that when you refer to the Old Covenant you are also referring to the literature known Old Testament? So, when you talk about the OC being made obsolete you mean that you consider the OT/Hebrew Bible to also be obsolete? Grace and Peace
  9. Greetings @IchimaruGin I agree with the sentiment expressed above. As, I do not know most Christians and I live in a place where Christians of any type are rare I would have to base my answer to it on pure conjecture. In general I have always believe that the ten commandments as well as the rest of the Torah were given only to the Children of Israel. So, it never dawned on me that one might consider the ten commandments to be binding on Christians. Great point! Of, course there is no such religion or denomination that is free from hypocrites. Basically it would appear to me that the individual you are responding to was simply trying to dismiss your denomination based on what two people did rather than address your arguments. Grace and Peace
  10. Greetings @William Your question: My quick and brief answer: With in the camp of the children of Israel there were: (1) the Gerim (Resident Aliens and the בֶּן נֵכָר/Ben Nekkar/foreigner ) who were simply that (Num 9:14, Num 15:26, Num 15:29, Deut 23:8, Deut 26:12).And, then (2) The those from among the Gerim who converted/or if male were circumcised (12:48) and become part of the Children of Israel. Group one (the Gerim) is similar to the 'God fearers' in the NT they were individuals who for whatevers never converted (or simply joined) and never were circumsed but sill wanted to worship in the religious Jewish communities. Group two who be similar to those like the Biblical Ruth, Aquila of Sinope, Ole Brunell, and anyone else who to day formally converts to Orthodox Judaism. Such individual will always be consider Jewish under 100% under Jewish Halakhah be it Orthodox or progressive. And, under Jewish Halakhah it is actually forbidden to remind one that they were a convert. A convert is to be consider completely Jewish. Jewishness is sort of like citizenship rather race, as Jews are actually of many different races and ethnic groups. There are Ashkenazi (German/European Jews), Sephardi (Spanish Jews), Mizrahi (Egyptian Jews),Yemenite Jews, Arab Jews, Beta Israel/formally Falasha (Ethiopian Jews), and more. (Important point) Basically, if your Mother is Jewish then under Jewish halakhah you are consider to be Jewish whether or not your father is Jewish and whether or not you are religious or atheist. If, you convert under Orthodox Jewish authorities everyone will consider you as Jewish, if you convert to under the Conservative movement (or Masorti Judaism) then only Conservative Jews and Reform Jews will accept your conversion as valid, if you convert under the Reform movement then only the Reform movement of Judaism and maybe those in Reconstructionist Judaism. LINKS TO OTHER ANSWERS: (1) http://www.jewfaq.org/whoisjew.htm (2) https://www.chabad.org/library/article_cdo/aid/3854897/jewish/Who-Is-a-Jew.htm (3) https://www.jewishvirtuallibrary.org/who-is-a-jew (4) https://www.myjewishlearning.com/article/who-is-a-jew-legal-issues/ (5) https://forward.com/opinion/spirituality/389736/we-asked-23-rabbis-what-are-jews-exactly/ Grace and Peace
  11. Oh, you mean the Sinaitic Covenant (or what the Tanakh tends to call the תורת משה/Torath Moshe)?
  12. Ben Asher

    Ben Asher

  13. Greetings @William Initially would I smile and laugh (1) for I know for sure that they are not linguist and I seriously doubt their claim to know the original languages. (2) It takes effort, persistence, intimacy, and time spent with a language to reach a level mid intermediate level of fluency in a foreign language (or L2), years to obtain an advance knowledge, and a life time of immersion to master it. (3) In my experience those who have spent the time and effort to reach the higher levels of language proficiency are the most humbled people I have ever met. Language immersion is a humbling life style for one is always aware that there is so much more learn and there always hurdles to over comes. This in my mind makes very unlikely that the statement in the question of yours could actually come from one who knows the languages. (4) Even if I am personally not found of a translation personally can not approve on defacing literature. (5) Off of the web I rarely if even use an English Translation Bible as my daily companion and almost never on Sunday. In which case if someone told me to edit my English I would continue laughing. (6) Knowing a language is very different from knowing how to render in another language. These are two different skill sets. (1a) Comparing one translator to a large committee of translators seems to me to be a fallacy or at the least rather silly. (1b) I must confess though that I am not a fan of the ESV. The ESV isn't a bad translation per se but it also isn't great one in my opinion. On the forums I have quoted the ESV on occasion when I believe the person I am addressing uses the ESV as their translation of choice. (2) "Birds of a feather stick together" In other words one tends to encounter and interact with others who hold common interests. I am interested in languages and I tend to hang out with other who are also language and literature enthusiast. In university one of the Greek professor who could sight read from anywhere in his Greek NT into English he was also some what fluent in modern Greek too . Brought his Greek NT with him wherever he went and encourage his students to do so to. A number of his students had their Greek NT rebound so that no one could tell that they were reading from their Greek New Testaments.I think one of his points was the act of reading the Bible in the original was one of private devotion and the it had little to do with translating per se but a lot more to do with language pedagogy. He wasn't my prof at the time but he stopped me because one time to talk to me and give me some advice because he knew I shared similar interest with him. Subsequently, I also had my original language text rebound to. Back in my home town I knew of a lot more individuals (non professional translators) who could read classical and modern Hebrew without the aid of a lexicon or dictionary but then again their ecclesiastic heritage strongly encourage them to do so. This of course is not the case within protestant Christianity. None of the individuals I know of would actually call themselves translators (with the expect of one of my friend who makes his living translating Japanese to English and localizing products). Wow, Good catch! It would be interesting to find out if this is a common issue with other English translations Some how this makes me very, very, very, happy to hear! I thank you for stating this point! Not always in the art of textual criticism where more than a few prefer the what the majority of texts say. Some of course prefer the older texts. Grace and Peace And May GOD bless you too!
  14. Greetings @Igor and welcome to the forums! Thus far there is no error as the Scriptures are a work of great antiquity. @Igor I agree with you that the above is an error. For all of Scriptures are God breathed and useful. @Igor Yes, indeed this is an error too. However I like to keep in mind that the: LORD used mere moral men to pen his eternal wisdom and thus the wisdom of heaven was incarnated in the language of earthly men. Here @Igor I agree more with Peter Gentry that "If you have no morphology, you have no theology." It is my guess that the majority of Christian today would not be able to study the Bible if it were not for the work of grammarians, exegetes, and translators. I find it high ironic that most seem to be able to name theologians, preachers, musicians, politicians, and even Hollywood stars but very few know anything about those who translated the particular translation of the word of God they now hold in their hands. Grace and Peace
  15. @William This sounds like a great slogan and wonderful advice! It is even better than one my favorite slogans: חפשו בתורה היטב ואל תסתמכו על דברי "Search thoroughly in the Torah and do not rely on my interpretation." Grace and Peace
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