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Origen

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About Origen

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    Staff Member

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    Hebrew, Aramaic (and other cognate languages), Greek, Latin, textual criticism, exegesis, philosophy

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    Male

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    TN

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    Church of Christ

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  1. What is wrong with you William? Only a literal hermeneutic will work in all cases. For example: Num 24:17 I see him, but not now; I behold him, but not near: a star shall come out of Jacob, and a scepter shall rise out of Israel; it shall crush the forehead of Moab and break down all the sons of Sheth. Only a literal a star and scepter makes senses in this text. And we all know that Jesus "crush the forehead of Moab and broke down all the sons of Sheth" in the N.T.
  2. This text says nothing about Satan possessing anyone. You have forces that idea upon the text. Paul makes it clear Satan is the one doing the hindering.
  3. Pure nonsense! Gen. 2:7 states God formed man from the dust of the ground and then breath into him life. He was not created from the ground up nor does the text even suggest such a thing. Untrue! God told Adam and Eve to "be fruitful and multiply (Gen. 1:28). This would only be possible if they were old enough to reproduce.
  4. We shall see. (1) Both Luke 22:3 and the John 13:27 reference the same person Judas. (2) The text does not claim Judas is possessed. Satan is the impetus but Judas is the who one acts. The text of Job NEVER uses the language of possession in regard to Job or the satan. There are no etc., etc.
  5. Say hello to all the purple unicorns and elves in fantasyland.
  6. Ah, you left out Wallace's quote where he states: "Yet there is only one devil" (p. 249). Very dishonest of you not supply the quote proving your claim wrong. Also you did not (or should I say cannot) address the word "monadic, meaning "ONE." Let me lay out the logic for you since it difficult for you to follow. Wallace says that διάβολος is monadic. The word "monadic" means "one." Since the word διάβολος is monadic, that means there is only one διάβολος.
  7. Again, I explained the why to you and even provided examples and scholarly lexicons. Either you did not read it or you are able to comprehend the point.
  8. I don't. I take action. Your comments are dishonest. Moreover you cited no grammar or lexicon to support your claim. The reason is clear. There are none. If dishonesty and zero evidence is what you call exegesis, then I thank God I know nothing about it.
  9. If you continue to be dishonest, you will be banned.
  10. Oh my!!! He says "there is only one devil." He says it is monadic which means "ONE."
  11. I explained why. Either you did not read it or you are able to comprehend the point.
  12. That is simply not the reason for the lower-case. For example Rev. 12:9: New International Version The great dragon was hurled down--that ancient serpent called the devil, or Satan, who leads the whole world astray. He was hurled to the earth, and his angels with him. New Living Translation This great dragon—the ancient serpent called the devil, or Satan, the one deceiving the whole world—was thrown down to the earth with all his angels. English Standard Version And the great dragon was thrown down, that ancient serpent, who is called the devil and Satan, the deceiver of the whole world—he was thrown down to the earth, and his angels were thrown down with him. New American Standard Bible And the great dragon was thrown down, the serpent of old who is called the devil and Satan, who deceives the whole world; he was thrown down to the earth, and his angels were thrown down with him. Christian Standard Bible So the great dragon was thrown out--the ancient serpent, who is called the devil and Satan, the one who deceives the whole world. He was thrown to earth, and his angels with him. NET Bible So that huge dragon—the ancient serpent, the one called the devil and Satan, who deceives the whole world—was thrown down to the earth, and his angels along with him. There are several points to note here. Lexham English Bible And the great dragon was thrown down, the ancient serpent, who is called the devil and Satan, who deceives the whole world. He was thrown down to the earth, and his angels were thrown down with him. First, even though there can be no doubt the devil here is Satan the translators do not use the upper-case. Second, just like 1 Pet. 5:8 διάβολος is anarthrous and it is in apposition. The reason has to do with the word itself. The word διάβολος is an adjective. However as every lexicon I know of makes clear it used as a substantive. This means the word functions as a noun even thought is an adjective. It is to be understood as a title or name. Since it is adjective translators will often use the lower-case even when it is beyond doubt (like Rev. 12:9) it is "the Devil Satan." The evidence from scholarly lexicons is overwhelming. These Greek lexicons could not be more clear and in no way support your claim. There are many other errors in your comment I may address latter if I have the time.
  13. Fact: Wallace is a Greek scholar and you are not. Fact: His expertise on the subject carry infinitely more weight than you. Fact: Your claim "Wallace NEVER even declares that 1 Peter 5.8 is 'The Devil', to begin with" is misleading to say the least. Monadic means ONE. Wallace makes this quite clear when he states: Fact: I cited two other advance Greek grammar which do not support your claim and which you could not address. Fact: I cited six scholarly lexicon which do not support your claim and you could not address those. Fact: You have cite no Greek grammars or lexicons to support your claim. Fact: All the scholarly evidence cited does not support your erroneous interpretation. 😂 It is easy when you ignores all the evidence against you as you have.
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