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Fireproof

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  1. Now right there, we can look at this verse seeing that all three (even four) are present David (1), speaking by the Holy Ghost (2) concerning what The LORD (3) is saying to my Lord (4) But of we don't count David Mark 12:36 For David himself said by the Holy Ghost (1) The LORD (2) said to my Lord(3), Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool. Thats better. If they are all Jesus, then that would be like saying David said by Jesus that Jesus said to himself sit thou on my right hand till I make thine enemies thy footstool. Is that how you are catching it?
  2. Yeah, I do try and use a dictionary when I think of it
  3. Thats where my problem always is I was using the words of some other book improperly defined seeing I come not to the same conclusions. I get that a lot from folks I might not see eye to eye with.
  4. Heres the verses 1 Peter 2:2- 4 As newborn babes, desire the sincere milk of the word, that ye may grow thereby: If so be ye have tasted that the Lord is gracious. ((( To whom coming)))) as unto a living stone, disallowed indeed of men, but chosen of God, and precious. The Lord is gracious (((to whom coming))) as unto a living stone Chosen of God Jesus our Lord is shown as gracious Luke 4:22 And all bare him witness, and wondered at the gracious words which proceeded out of his mouth. And they said, Is not this Joseph's son? Acts 2:36 just shows God made Jesus Lord and Christ, I have no dispute with these verses.
  5. Thats alright I can laugh at myself, and sure, in heaven in folks, and in hell he is shown about everywhere Psalm 139:8 If I ascend up into heaven, thou art there: if I make my bed in hell, behold, thou art there.
  6. True, he can be in more then one place (heaven) and make his abode in people Isaiah 57:15 For thus saith the high and lofty One that inhabiteth eternity, whose name is Holy; I dwell in the high and holy place, with him also that is of a contrite and humble spirit, to revive the spirit of the humble, and to revive the heart of the contrite ones. John 14:23 Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him.
  7. I already gave the link where we had the discussion on the Son being addressed as God so I will not go down that road again because that isn't even a beef of mine here. I am not in a position to wrangle over the same things, I do have a bit of trouble typing for long periods of time so I will just say that and leave things where they are, I wont ask again, it shouldn't be too important to me how you come to your positions.
  8. You keep throwing things into the mix and some of the verses I scratch my head at 1 Peter 2:4 ? God laid the foundation a stone, a tried stone as shown in Isaiah 28:16, the sure foundation she is affirmed to be in 2 Ti 2:19 and a living stone we come to the Father by as show in 1 Peter 2:4. How is God laying the foundation, a stone (being Christ) mean what you are showing? And here, from back further in regards to Psalm 110:4-5 the first part of the verse is included which says Psalm 110:4-5 The LORD hath sworn, and will not repent, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchizedek. The Lord (( at )) thy right hand shall strike through kings ((( in ))) the day of his wrath. Compare with the day of wrath here Rev 6:15-17 And the kings of the earth, and the great men, and the rich men, and the chief captains, and the mighty men, and every bondman, and every free man, hid themselves in the dens and in the rocks of the mountains; And said to the mountains and rocks, Fall on us, and hide us from the face of him that sitteth on the throne, (((( and )))) from the wrath of the Lamb: For the great day of his wrath ((( is come )))); and who shall be able to stand? In mentions the tasting the good word of God in Hebrews 6:5 also just as 1 Peter 2:2 -3 states more fully, As newborn babes, desire the sincere milk of the word, that ye may grow thereby: If so be ye have tasted that the Lord is gracious. To whom coming, as unto a living stone, disallowed indeed of men, but chosen of God, and precious For us there is but one God even the Father and one Lord Jesus Christ, he is the stone (the living one Peter mentions) which is rejected of men but chosen of God. I don't see any contradictions
  9. His throne is set in heaven, I dont know if the angels take it down at certain times or not though
  10. Well just say the Lord was at your right hand wouldnt you be on his left then? That would leave his right opened no?
  11. I don't know if the position of right or left of God are really that important at this point, since Jesus said, Luke 22:69 Hereafter shall the Son of man sit on the right hand of the power of God. And then here, Acts 7:56 And said, Behold, I see the heavens opened, and the Son of man standing on the right hand of God. So it went from sitting to standing and at the right hand, and then to those who overcome Jesus says, Rev 3:21 To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne. Then again, when the sons of Zebedee asked about sitting on the right and left of him Jesus responded (concerning this part) Mark 10:40 But to sit on my right hand and on my left hand is not mine to give; but it shall be given to them for whom it is prepared. And we know he is our high priest who is set on the right hand of the throne of the Majesty in the heavens
  12. Hey Faber, we had a similar conversation before here A few of the verses you posted (and how I might understand them) are posted there so I wont touch upon them here. I do understand that the Jesus set at the right hand of the Father is as the LORD showing the resurrection of Christ and his being begotten from the dead there. I see that as more of an open show of what was spoken of prior, a seeing before as noted in scripture of what God would bring to pass in Christ and setting Christ as Lord. To acknowledge the son the same has the Father however to acknowledge the Father (and not the Son) would not be the same thing. So I am not convinced that saying that the LORD (there in Psalm 101) is Christ speaking to himself if he told us he came not into this world of himself but the Father sent him. You might not be saying that, I do know that David speaks prophetically concerning his death calling the Son of God (Jesus) MY Lord, but so also does Elizabeth when it comes to addressing Mary as the mother of MY Lord before he was born. As far as the Psalm goes its that the LORD is speaking to David's Lord (who is thought to be the Son of David) and who is the Son of God. But you don't think Jesus is speaking to himself (basically) rather than the Father (as one person) addressing the Son (as a person) in David, by the Holy Ghost (as a person) in the one God? I'll get the swing of this :)
  13. The scriptures acknowledge that the fullness of the Godhead bodily dwelt in Jesus Christ but why is that which indwelt referred to as three (in him) or as the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit (in him) versus that which pertains to the number seven which was to indwell him? For example, in Zechariah it shows these seven eyes upon one Stone ( the Stone referring to Christ) in Zechariah 3:9. Which same theme seems to follow in the Lamb slain in Revelation 5:6 (Jesus Christ, in Whom the fullness of the Godhead bodily did dwell). In Revelation the same seven eyes appear along with seven horns as mentioned in Revelation 5:6 which are interpreted for us as the seven spirits (which had been sent out into the earth) which would be concerning the fullness (which was in Christ) even as that fullness pertains to the Godhead (of which fullness) it also states we have received (as is acknowledged in John 1:16). According to the references in various places is seeing the fullness that was in Christ according to the number of eyes (7 on one stone) versus the Father, Son and Holy Spirit (or the 3)? Just curious would that be wrong, even though you acknowledge the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit (or the 3) but the fullness in him (according to how you might see it in various places in scripture can be acknowledged as 7 without denying the other. Would that be considered semantics or like life and death doctrinal stuff?
  14. Faber glad you brought this up, I would ask, how would you explain between the translations where the OT shows the difference between the word Lord when the NT does not. Maybe you know what I might mean because I think I need to work on showing that through the scriptures myself, and likely by presenting the scriptures which could better show this then just words alone. Not sure I am being very clear here, but for example lets say, Psalm 110:1 The LORD said unto MY Lord there showing two Lords when we know there is one Lord of course (and the one Lord being instructed to sit at the other LORD's right hand is Christ the Lord (as we all know) David himself acknowledging the both as translated there in the OT. David even acknowledging the one being instructed by the LORD as MY Lord there ). Jesus brings that same verse up. Acts 2:36 brings up the same thing between them telling us God himself made Jesus Lord who himself put all things under Christ subjecting all things unto Christ (God himself being excepted of being under as is shown in 1 Corinthians 15:27 ) This particular common theme is probably the easiest one to show a pattern and an unquestionable common theme between them given the direct quotes and the words used between them to better show how the difference between those words don't really come through between translations. I am not a translation expert here obviously but I do go to the translations for help and they haven't been too helpful to coming out to the same conclusion according to them, if only just here. My question would be how would you show what you just posted (in the above) using Psalm 110:1 and the common theme between them as shown in Jesus quotes of it and the apostles use of the same, especially of God making Jesus Lord in Acts 2:36 which springs off of the same verse quoted in Psalm 110:1 where the one is speaking to the other, or in other words "the Father/ The LORD speaking to the Son MY Lord there" For example how is one to show that Jesus The LORD would be saying to Jesus MY Lord (as David shows it) to sit thou at my right hand... know what I am asking? Or is my confusion beyond help? lol I'm, not too swift over here and, sometimes it takes a little awhile before I can wrap my head around things.
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