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porton

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  1. You have proved with a great amount of evidence that this is an implied definite article accordinly to the Jewish tradition. You have not proved that God implied it with certainity. I am not going to reply to further insults.
  2. But it is not a sure (100%) evidence. So, it does not prove things with 100% probability. You seem to say that this LXX translation proves we must believe that here the article is implied. I believe exactly the reverse of what you assume I believe on this. I believe we should (among other ways of Bible study) apply the grammar more literally than most human translators assume. For example, (Gal. 3:16) "Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He said not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to your seed, which is Christ." A modern theologian would interpret it this way: "When the human author of the Bible wrote "seed", he definitely meant many descendants as clear from context". Modern theology and Bible are seriously incompatible with each other. I'd better say that my knowledge of Greek and Hebrew is yet rather bad. But there is no total lack of knowledge. See the above. I reversely insist to follow the grammar literally ("as it is written"). Meant to insult me. See above. Now I wonder. You don't believe into the spiritual sense of Bible at all? Even after all other things you said, it causes my wonder on you. Logically, then you should not believe into the literal sense of the Bible, too. It's because Paul explicitly tells in God's word that there is a spiritual meaning. I even don't want to search for a quote, so obvious it is. Yes, certainly, it means the ladder, I meant that. But it said that angels were on the ladder. So, I expect that it refers to angels too, when saying that God stood above the ladder, it seems to mean that He stood above angels, too. Yes, my word "stood" was an error. It should be "ascending and descending" instead.
  3. Definitely, LXX can be useful to understand the meaning of Hebrew Bible. But it is not God-inspired. It is a point of inspiration not just of human grammar whether God (not a human through which it was written) means here an article or not. It is inspired meaning not just an ordinary grammar. They translated human sense mostly. I put forth that we need to see through it and see the divine sense. The grammar for these two (or more) senses may be a little different. For example, a human translator may assume an implied article but God may mean that it can also be read without an article. I deem such things possible. The intent of this phrase was to insult me. Nevermind, it is not important. I will not address this insult. Accordingly to the well-known principle that the Bible should be interpreted by the Bible. My belief is that there is a hidden meaning behind the wordplay. Sorry, I will not address this issue about the ladder. It is just not very important. I would probably interpret it more exactly if I would have theological or linguistic education. But it seems that God wants to deliver His revelations through persons without such a formal background nevertheless. Not sure why but Corinthians says like this.
  4. I just haven't said this. And yes, if I become very educated in the field of theology, God may send somebody uneducated to eliminate my pride. Bible says it happens this way.
  5. I don't believe that LXX is God-inspired. Reference to LXX means nothing for me. Yes, I am sent by God to reveal the deep meaning of Hebrew Bible. God sends weak and uneducated to (1Cor. 1:27) to confound educated. Yes, I can't prove it. But that the same word is a plural and singular seems to witness this with almost a great certainity. I live in Israel. I speak (however not fluently) in modern Hebrew. I wrote a tutorial on ancient Hebrew without vowels. I didn't mean that this is a rule for all cases. If a word is used once, then this my rule obviously cannot be followed. I know the grammar of the word "Bethel". I mean that your guess is: "If the word El is used once in the verse, then the same word should be substituted in another parts of the same verse". This is definitely a guess. You are right that usage of "El" as a part of "Bethel" is a sure thing, not a guess. You just misunderstood me. In ESV it is the English word translated "it" in "above it". It is clear that this word refers to the ladder with angels from the previous verse.
  6. The word "el" is with prefix "l-". With this prefix an article may be implied or absent. Whether it is a word with an article can be inferred only from vowel points. I do not believe that vowels in Hebrew Bible are God-inspired: Without Vowels project - Without Vowels project WITHOUTVOWELS.ORG So the article here is questionable. Regarding "community of gods", as I said above, I assume that God is a "community of gods". There are many other ways to represent God not related to communities, however: Chapter 5 Christ and God - New Testament Commentary by a Mathematician BOOKS.PORTONVICTOR.ORG The lexicons are not as authoritative as Bible itself. We should infer meanings of words from a comparison of different Bible verses. "To highlight the relation with Bethel" is your guess, educated guess but not a sure understanding". The text says that YHWH stood above a ladder with angels. Thus, above angels.
  7. But YHWH may appear through an angel which spoke for Him. This angel may be the "El" mentioned in Genesis 35:1. Hm, however it says that YHWH stood above angels (Genesis 28:13). (I don't try to lead astray from monotheism, just want to be sure I understand the Bible exactly as written.) Just need to analyze more Bible verses on this important topic.
  8. If we interpret literally, not all but "foreign", whatever this may mean.
  9. (Genesis 35:1) "And God said to Jacob, Arise, go up to Bethel, and dwell there: and make there an altar to God, that appeared to you when you fled from the face of Esau your brother." The second word "God" here is "al" not "ha-Elochim". So maybe this should be translated "a god"? Is it possible that God allows (and even requires) Jacob to set an altar for a particular spiritual being (before the law "don't serve other Gods" came through Moses), not for God? By the way, I think that "ha-Elochim" (in singular form) means "community of gods". That is one of the ways to represent our God is a community, community of entities called "gods". They are represented with singular grammar form what may mean to be united very tightly (being in peace and love with each other). In other words, the word God ("ha-Elochim") may represent heavenly democracy as opposed to the authority of individual creatures what is considered not good on people by the Bible. This also explains what "God is love" means: God is love between gods.
  10. I cannot, because she is in Kenia, while I am in Israel.
  11. I am an almost Pentecostal: I myself pray in tongues but don't think that everybody baptized by Spirit speaks tongues (1Cor. 12:30). I recently started to acquaint with a Protestant Quaker girl. This girl has math education, what I consider a must for my wife and she appeals to me. What should I say to her about baptizing by Spirit? Well, I yet know very little about her, some Quackers do speak tongues by the way. I am somehow afraid to turn her away if I say it to rashly. What question should I ask her first?
  12. I've published the text of this my sermon in English: Necessity of sufferings. A sermon by a mathematician | Victor Porton's Christian sermons PORTONSERMONS.WORDPRESS.COM I will first before the sermon tell a little about myself. I am a programmer and mathematician. It happened that I haven’t finished the higher...
  13. I have no formal training in theology or religious studies or like this. I am not currently going to evangelize, I want rather to teach in already established churches, if that's possible. I visit a Messianic congregation weekly. (In fact having no car I have little choice which church to visit.) But that's unrelated to my purpose. However I contacted our pastor today showing forth to him my sermon (which I am right now translating to English, by the way, I will show it to you).
  14. I am a Russian citizen (and also Israeli citizen) and thus have the right to buy an air ticket to Russia whenever I want and travel there with whatever (legal) purpose I want. So it is not a problem for me.
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