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John W. Schoenheit's confusion concerning the use of "Lord" by Paul (1 Corinthians 8:6)

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1 Corinthians 8:6

yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist. (ESV)

 

John W. Schoenheit: There is no good reason that the verse would be written in a way that is so clearly non-Trinitarian, calling the Father, “God,” and Jesus, “Lord,” if the Trinity existed.

https://www.revisedenglishversion.co...-Corinthians/8

 

When Paul applied "Lord" to the Lord Jesus in 1 Corinthians 8:6 it means that He is God.[*1] This use of "Lord" is taught from the very same book. For example:

1. 1 Corinthians 1:2-3 and 1 Corinthians 16:22-23 teaches that the Lord Jesus is the proper recipient of prayer - and prayer is due unto God alone. Elsewhere, He is worshiped as "Lord" (6:17; 7:22, 35 cf. v. 5; 12:3).

2. As "Lord" His attribute is "glory" (2:8).[*2]

3. YHWH (LORD) of the Old Testament is applied unto the Lord Jesus several times (1:31 with Jeremiah 9:23-24; 2:16 with Isaiah 40:13LXX[*3]; 10:21-22 with Malachi 1:7 and Deuteronomy 32:19-21; 10:26 with Psalm 24:1)[*4]

4. 1 Corinthians 4:5 teaches that the Lord Jesus fully knows the hearts of all which demonstrates that He is omniscient (God).

https://www.christforums.com/forums/topic/5196-kardiognōstēs-does-it-mean-omniscient/

5. In 1 Corinthians 4:19 and 1 Corinthians 16:7 (cf. Hebrews 6:3) we see that the will of the Lord Jesus is supreme.

 

 

[*1] Concerning 1 Corinthians 12:3 Ceslas Spicq writes: "Let every tongue proclaim that Jesus Christ is Lord," that is, God. Such is the object of faith profession and worship: "Believe in the Lord Jesus and you will be saved." Henceforth, Christians are "those who call upon the name of our Lord Jesus Christ," that is, who worship his divine majesty and implore his sovereign protection (Theological Lexicon of the New Testament, Lord, 2:350).

 

[*2] 1. Marvin Vincent: The Lord whose attribute is glory.

http://www.godrules.net/library/vinc...ncent1cor2.htm

2. John Lange: “Lord of glory” is a title of Divinity. It means possessor of Divine excellence. “Who is the King of glory? The Lord of hosts, he is the King of glory” (Psalm 24:10; Acts 7:2; James 2:1; Ephesians 1:17). The person crucified, therefore, was a Divine person.

http://www.studylight.org/commentari...nthians-2.html

 

[*3] What is very interesting is that Paul would apply YHWH (LORD) from this very same Old Testament passage both unto the Father (Romans 11:34) and unto the Lord Jesus (1 Corinthians 2:16).

George Carraway: What is perhaps most noteworthy about this text is that Paul uses the same text from Isaiah in Romans 11:34 where he clearly refers to God. That suggests some ambiguity in delineating between Jesus and God. Thus, this passage is an example of the way theocentrism and christocentism are interwoven among many Old Testament quotes (Christ is God Over All: Romans 9:5 in the context of Romans 9-11, page 110-111).

 

[*4] Peter, John and Luke did the same.

Peter: 1 Peter 2:3 with Psalm 34:8; 1 Peter 3:12 with Psalm 34:15-16a; 1 Peter 3:15 with Isaiah 8:13.

John: John 12:41 with Isaiah 6:1-10; Revelation 17:14 and 19:16 with Deuteronomy 10:17 and Psalm 136:1-3.

Luke: Acts 2:20 with Joel 2:31; Acts 2:21 with Joel 2:32; Acts 2:25 with Psalm 16:8; Acts 9:31 with Proverbs 23:17; Acts 9:35 with Psalm 22:27.

 

 

 

Edit: Some may insist that since in 1 Corinthians 8:6 it reads, "one God, the Father" that this would disqualify the Lord Jesus from being God. However, it also reads, "one Lord, Jesus Christ",

Just as the Father is both God (1 Corinthians 8:6) and Lord (Acts 4:29), so too the Lord Jesus is both God (John 20:28) and Lord (1 Corinthians 8:6).

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