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Faber

For (eis) the forgiveness of sins in Acts 2:38

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Faber

Acts 2:38

Peter said to them, "Repent, and each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit" (NASB).

 

 I believe that the command to be water baptized for (eis) the forgiveness of sins and to receive the Holy Spirit only applied to the unbelieving Jews of that time period because they delivered (paradidōmi) Christ up to Pilate (John 18:35) which constituted "the greater sin" (John 19:11).[*1] Peter would later tell the Jews in his audience they delivered (paradidōmi) Him up to Pilate (Acts 3:13 cf. Acts 3:17).[*2] Compared with all other people these Jews were not strangers to the covenants of promise (Ephesians 2:12) which testified of Christ (John 5:39). They saw many of His miracles and heard many of His words. Their greater sin required a greater form of repentance – water baptism in the Name of their Messiah whom they crucified.

 

 Some affirm that eis (for) has a casual use in Acts 2:38. People take medicine for a cold. Obviously, it doesn't mean they do so in order to obtain a cold, but rather because of a cold. However, the notable scholars listed below don't see eis in Acts 2:38 being used this way. The bold is mine.

     1. BDAG (3rd Edition): to denote purpose in order to, to...for forgiveness of sins, so that sins might be forgiven Mt 26:28; cp...Ac 2:38 (eis, page 290).[*3]

     2. Murray Harris: Liddel-Scott list no casual uses of eis...It is significant that A. Oepke, who notes an occasional casual eis in the NT, finds eis to be final in both Matt. 3:11 and Acts 2:38 (eis, TDNT 2:429) (3:1187, Appendix D3).

     3. G. R. Beasley-Murray: Whatever the relationship between baptism and the gift of the Spirit elsewhere in Acts, there appears to be no doubt as to the intention of Acts 2:38; the penitent believer baptized in the name of Jesus Christ may expect to receive at once the Holy Spirit, even as he is assured the immediate forgiveness of his sins (Baptism in the New Testament, page 108).
    

 

[*1] NIDNTT: In the report of the trial before Pilate into which are interwoven many legal ideas Pilate pronounces his repeated conclusion that he can find no guilt in Jesus deserving death (in Jn. 18:38; 19:4, 6, aitia; in Lk. 23:4, 14, 22, aition). Hence in the Gospel accounts the demand of the crowd for the death of the innocent one is all the more culpable (2:139, Guilt, Thiele).

 

[*2] No clear cut case exists in Scripture of any Gentile being water baptized in the name of the Lord for the forgiveness of sins and to receive the Holy Spirit. In fact, Cornelius and the Gentiles with him received the Holy Spirit before they were water baptized. See post #4:

https://www.christforums.com/forums/topic/5299-debate-cornelius-and-baptism/

 

[*3] Notice that for forgiveness of sins in Matthew 26:28 corresponds to for forgiveness of sins in Acts 2:38.
          εἰς ἄφεσιν ἁμαρτιῶν (Matthew 26:28) = εἰς ἄφεσιν τῶν ἁμαρτιῶν (Acts 2:38)

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oldhermit

There is no such case as the causal case for the preposition eis in Koine Greek. This is an idea that was fostered by Julius Mantey in an article he wrote in 1923 and was called to task by his peers. He was never able to prove either from biblical sources nor from ancient secular writings, any instance where eis could ever be rendered as 'because'. There were however, a hand full of scholars of Montey's time who jumped on the band wagon in support of this Idea but like Mantey, they could never prove the case. Robertson was one of those who defended the idea but by his own admission, his conclusion was not based on any rule of grammar but upon his own personal soteriological opinion. In short, the argument for the causal eis cannot be supported by any rule of grammar and Robertson knew this. The causal case of eis is nothing more than the fanciful imagination of one man. 

Edited by oldhermit

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William
Staff
On 10/14/2019 at 4:29 PM, Faber said:

Compared with all other people these Jews were not strangers to the covenants of promise

Exactly, so my question is why do none of the commentators you supply refer to anything related to Covenant and especially the sign and seal? Do they think that cannot be exegeted from the verse in question?

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hanna
On 10/15/2019 at 1:29 AM, Faber said:


 

 

[*3] Notice that for forgiveness of sins in Matthew 26:28 corresponds to for forgiveness of sins in Acts 2:38.
          εἰς ἄφεσιν ἁμαρτιῶν (Matthew 26:28) = εἰς ἄφεσιν τῶν ἁμαρτιῶν (Acts 2:38)

Yes, both are done so that we can receive forgiveness of our sins.

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Faber
20 hours ago, William said:

Exactly, so my question is why do none of the commentators you supply refer to anything related to Covenant and especially the sign and seal? 

 

 They may have. I just mostly cited to what pertains to eis.

20 hours ago, hanna said:

Yes, both are done so that we can receive forgiveness of our sins.

 

 See footnote 2 in the OP.

 

 See also here:

https://www.christforums.com/forums/topic/20259-when-was-the-holy-spirit-received-in-the-book-of-acts/

 

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