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John Calvin puts forward a very simple reason why love is the greatest gift: “Because faith and hope are our own: love is diffused among others.” In other words, faith and hope benefit the possessor, but love always benefits another. In John 13:34–35 Jesus says, “A new command I give you: Love one another. As I have loved you, so you must love one another. By this everyone will know that you are my disciples, if you love one another.” Love always requires an “other” as an object; love cannot remain within itself, and that is part of what makes love the greatest gift.
Bowman

Is Satan bound today?

Is Satan bound today?  

7 members have voted

  1. 1. Is Satan bound today?



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13 hours ago, Bowman said:

This passage does not refer to ‘The Devil’ himself, for several reasons:

 

·         ‘Diabolos’ is anarthrous (i.e. it lacks a preceding Greek definite article).  Thus, rather than referring to ‘The Devil’ it refers to ‘A devil’, a demon – of which, the NT often refers to demons as devils.

 

·         ‘Ho antidikos’ (the adversary) is used in only one other NT passage, Mat 5.25, and is in the context of being thrown into prison.

 

·         The key word ‘hōs’ literally means ‘in the same manner as’, and is used to describe demons in Revelation, ‘in the same manner as’ a lion (Rev 9.8).

 

·         This passage does not pertain to 'The Devil"....but 'A devil'...i.e. a demon...

While I agree with you that the Devil is restrained\bound in some sense, your reasons for not viewing 1 Pet. 5:8 as the Devil won't work.

 

13 hours ago, Bowman said:

‘Diabolos’ is anarthrous (i.e. it lacks a preceding Greek definite article).  Thus, rather than referring to ‘The Devil’ it refers to ‘A devil’, a demon – of which, the NT often refers to demons as devils.

While it is true "diabolos" is anarthrous, it is still definite.  Monadic nouns do not require the article to be definite.  There are numerous example in the N.T.

See Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics by Daniel Wallace p. 249 and A Greek Grammar the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature by F. Blass and A. Debrunner p. 149, §268.

 

13 hours ago, Bowman said:

‘Ho antidikos’ (the adversary) is used in only one other NT passage, Mat 5.25, and is in the context of being thrown into prison.

There is simply no objective reason why the term could not be applied to the Devil.  In fact there is a very good reason why Peter would use the term.  The Greek noun refers to one who is an "accuser."   In Hebrew the word for "accuser" is "satan" (i.e. שָּׂטָן‎).  Since there are definite links between the words and their meanings, referring to the Devil as accuser\adversary makes perfect sense. 

 

Also note the word is used three times Mat. 5:25, its parallel passage Luke 12:58, and 1 Pet. 5:8. 

13 hours ago, Bowman said:

The key word ‘hōs’ literally means ‘in the same manner as’, and is used to describe demons in Revelation, ‘in the same manner as’ a lion (Rev 9.8).

I don't know what you mean by "key word," but ὡς is used over 500 times in the N.T. in all kinds contexts.  The fact it is used in Rev. 9:8 really does not prove anything since the word is so common.  It is a comparative particle and used to compare all kinds of things.

 

13 hours ago, Bowman said:

This passage does not pertain to 'The Devil"....but 'A devil'...i.e. a demon...

The word for demon is δαιμόνιον.  Devil is διάβολος.  Part of the confusion is KJV translates both διάβολος and δαιμόνιον as “devil.” 

  

Like I said I agree with you the Devil is restrained\bound in some sense but this verse refers to THE Devil.

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17 minutes ago, William said:

See, you've redefined "bound" to inactive in the world. Then you go further to suggest that Satan when bound will no longer be able to whisper lies into ears. Is this how Scripture defines Satan's binding?

 

 

Your post in the thread you cited is what makes me believe Satan is currently bound by the Gospel of Christ.  Really good posts.  

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2 hours ago, Origen said:

There is simply no objective reason why the term could not be applied to the Devil.  In fact there is a very good reason why Peter would use the term.  The Greek noun refers to one who is an "accuser."   In Hebrew the word for "accuser" is "satan" (i.e. שָּׂטָן‎).  Since there are definite links between the words and their meanings, referring to the Devil as accuser\adversary makes perfect sense. 

It is interesting you bring up the subject of the accuser. I have an excerpt from my second book addressing that very subject. Here is is:

The Accuser

 

Some believe that Satan’s main job is to accuse man before God. This is based on the following scripture: “And the Lord said unto Satan, hast thou considered my servant Job, that there is none like him in the earth, a perfect and an upright man, one that feareth God, and escheweth evil? Then Satan answered the Lord, and said, doth Job fear God for nought? Hast not thou made an hedge about him, and about his house, and about all that he hath on every side? Thou hast blessed the work of his hands, and his substance is increased in the land.” (Job 1:8-10).

 

Satan did accuse Job, but only after God asked his opinion.

How does Satan accuse us? “And I heard a loud voice saying in heaven, now is come salvation, and strength, and the kingdom of our God, and the power of His Christ: For the accuser of our brethren is cast down, which accused them before our God day and night.” (Rev. 12:10).

 

Does God really take accusations against us on a daily basis, or is this just a general statement? 

Consider: Isaiah 43:25: “I, even I, am He that blotteth out thy transgressions for mine own sake, and will not remember thy sins.”

 

If God will not remember our sins, then Satan tries to put a guilt trip on us. It paralyzes our Christian walk (our faith) and hinders us from our true potential.

 

Also consider: Isaiah 43:26. “Put me in remembrance: Let us plead together: Declare thou, that thou mayest be justified.” “Declare thou” or speak out (margin)—this is part of resisting the devil.

 

“Submit yourselves therefore to God. Resist the devil, and he will flee from you.” (James 4:7).

We need to openly and audibly speak our deliverance into reality.

 

Read again Revelation 12:10 above, and then Revelation 12:11. “And they overcame him by the blood of the Lamb, and by the word of their testimony; and they loved not their lives unto the death.”

 

We need to overcome Satan and his works, just like our Lord Jesus did.

 

Let’s now go back to Calvary.

“When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, He said, ‘it is finished:’ And He bowed His head, and gave up the ghost.”  (John 19:30).

 

It is finished? What is finished? “These things I have spoken unto you, that in me ye might have peace. In the world ye shall have tribulation: But be of good cheer; I have overcome the world.” (John 16:33).

 

Jesus has overcome the world. His work on the part of the redeemed is done, but we have to do our part and speak our deliverance. In so doing, we will overcome also. “And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath He quickened [Gr. made alive] together with Him, having forgiven you all trespasses; blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to His cross; and having spoiled principalities and powers, He made a shew of them openly, triumphing over them in it.” (Col. 2:13–15).

 

Being delivered from our trespasses, let us walk accordingly. If we are of the redeemed, then we have this deliverance. Are you walking in the flesh or in the spirit? “For scarcely for a righteous man will one die: Yet peradventure for a good man some would even dare to die. But God commendeth His love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us. Much more then, being now justified by His blood, we shall be saved from wrath through Him.” (Rom. 5:7–9).  

 

We had our sins paid for while we were yet doing them. We are now redeemed, so we need to act accordingly. “I beseech you therefore, brethren, by the mercies of God, that ye present your bodies a living sacrifice, holy, acceptable unto God, which is your reasonable service. And be not conformed to this world: But be ye transformed by the renewing of your mind, that ye may prove what is that good, and acceptable, and perfect, will of God.” (Rom. 12:1–2).

 

Make yourself a living sacrifice, and start seeking this kind of deliverance from God.

 

You might need God’s help with this. “Ask, and it shall be given you; seek, and ye shall find; knock, and it shall be opened unto you: For every one that asketh receiveth; and he that seeketh findeth; and to him that knocketh it shall be opened.” (Matt. 7:7,8).

 

Just ask God for what you want.

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On ‎5‎/‎12‎/‎2019 at 9:00 PM, Bowman said:

Starting a poll on why, or why not, people view Satan as being bound today...

My view is that scripture clearly mandates that Satan is presently bound.  In fact, Satan was bound at The Cross.

In a sense that is somewhat true . But most commentators will refer back to Job chap 1:6-12 .Especially verse 12 where God gives the permission to Satan to test Job ,but does lay down one restriction ," All that he has is in your power only upon him put forth not your hand. In other words, 'Don't put your hand upon him."

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22 hours ago, Faber said:

 

 I think this is the first time that I have read that theos refers to Christ in this passage.

 

Most people assume that it refers to Satan - but it does not.

 

Theos is a title for God, alone.... 🙂

 

13 hours ago, atpollard said:

I chose "don't know", which is not accurate, because I do not believe it to be a question with a "yes" or "no" answer (and "none of the above" was not a choice).

 

I see no evidence to suggest, and a great deal of evidence to contradict, that "the accuser" is currently inactive in the world.  That the "Father of Lies" no longer whispers lies into ears.  So "NO" Satan is not bound with respect to the fallen world in which we dwell.

 

I see every evidence to suggest that "The Accuser" and the "Father of Lies" has no more freedom to act against the Children of God, than he did to act against Job.  So "YES" Satan is bound with respect to the Body of Christ.

 

Scripture is full of examples of Satan possessing people BEFORE The Cross.

 

But, ZERO, after The Cross...

 

13 hours ago, CDF47 said:

 

I have difficulty with this as well.  I agree that he is bound with respect to the Body of Christ.  That may be the intention of the Scripture.  

 

The evil in the world today is caused by the '200,000,000' demons running free in the world (Revelation).

 

Thankfully, Satan is bound today and cannot directly possess anyone, believer, or not....

 

 

 

 

 

6 hours ago, Matthew Duvall said:

In a sense that is somewhat true . But most commentators will refer back to Job chap 1:6-12 .Especially verse 12 where God gives the permission to Satan to test Job ,but does lay down one restriction ," All that he has is in your power only upon him put forth not your hand. In other words, 'Don't put your hand upon him."

 

Satan has always required permission to possess a person.

 

Think of his binding as 'lack of permission'...

 

13 hours ago, Origen said:

While I agree with you that the Devil is restrained\bound in some sense, your reasons for not viewing 1 Pet. 5:8 as the Devil won't work.

 

 

Actually, it does...

 

13 hours ago, Origen said:

 

While it is true "diabolos" is anarthrous, it is still definite.  Monadic nouns do not require the article to be definite.  There are numerous example in the N.T.

See Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics by Daniel Wallace p. 249 and A Greek Grammar the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature by F. Blass and A. Debrunner p. 149, §268.

 

 

 

That is why Wallace, at the bottom of page 248, declares the fact that one must 'think of the entire noun phrase, NOT just a single word, when identifying it as monadic.' 

 

Emphasis, mine...

 

13 hours ago, Origen said:

 

 

There is simply no objective reason why the term could not be applied to the Devil.  In fact there is a very good reason why Peter would use the term.  The Greek noun refers to one who is an "accuser."   In Hebrew the word for "accuser" is "satan" (i.e. שָּׂטָן‎).  Since there are definite links between the words and their meanings, referring to the Devil as accuser\adversary makes perfect sense. 

 

 

 

‘Ho antidikos’ is part of the noun phrase to which Wallace mentions.

 

 

13 hours ago, Origen said:

 

I don't know what you mean by "key word," but ὡς is used over 500 times in the N.T. in all kinds contexts.  The fact it is used in Rev. 9:8 really does not prove anything since the word is so common.  It is a comparative particle and used to compare all kinds of things.

 

 

 

The same comparison is made in each passage, 'in the same manner as' a Lion.

 

Not that it IS the Lion...rather in the same manner as a Lion would....clearly indicating something other than The Lion.

 

 

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18 hours ago, Bowman said:

That is why Wallace, at the bottom of page 248, declares the fact that one must 'think of the entire noun phrase, NOT just a single word, when identifying it as monadic.' 

 

Emphasis, mine...

He also says:

 

"Modern translations have correctly rendered δαιμόνιον as “demon” and have, for the most part, recognized that διάβολος is monadic (cf., e.g., 1 Pet 5:8; Rev 20:2)."  Wallace identifies διάβολος as monadic.

 

Quote

‘Ho antidikos’ is part of the noun phrase to which Wallace mentions.

It is and the above quote show he stills identifies διάβολος as monadic.  Clearly Wallace did not see it as a problem.  Furthermore that does nothing to address the point I made in regard to the text.

 

Quote

The same comparison is made in each passage, 'in the same manner as' a Lion.

First, the point is such an example proves nothing since the word ὡς is comparative particle and used over 500 times.  That is the word one would expect.  Second, it s not really the same comparison at all.  In Rev. 9:8 there is no adversary, no devil, no roaring and the comparison is to teeth.  Moreover the comparison in 1 Pet.  5:8 concerns what the Devil does ("like a roaring lion seeking someone to devour)."  In Rev. 9:8 the comparison is a description the locusts appearance ("their teeth like lions’ teeth").

 

Lastly you just ignored the fact that word for demon is δαιμόνιον and the word for Devil is διάβολος.

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13 hours ago, Origen said:

 

 

The word for demon is δαιμόνιον.  Devil is διάβολος.  Part of the confusion is KJV translates both διάβολος and δαιμόνιον as “devil.” 

  

Like I said I agree with you the Devil is restrained\bound in some sense but this verse refers to THE Devil.

 

The lexicons list lower-case 'devil' for δαιμόνιον.

 

Likewise, the lexicons list lower-case 'devil' for διάβολος.

 

Again.....fully supporting that 1 Peter 5.8 is not referencing the freedom of THE Devil, himself....

 

 

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48 minutes ago, Bowman said:

Theos is a title for God, alone.... 🙂

 

 Doesn't Scripture apply theos to:

1. Judges (John 10:34)

2. Paul (Acts 14:11; 28:6)

3. The man of lawlessness (2 Thessalonians 2:4)

4. Idols (Acts 7:40, 43; 19:26; 1 Corinthians 8:5; Galatians 4:8; Philippians 3:19)

5. Herod (Acts 12:22)

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12 hours ago, deade said:

 

 

How does Satan accuse us? “And I heard a loud voice saying in heaven, now is come salvation, and strength, and the kingdom of our God, and the power of His Christ: For the accuser of our brethren is cast down, which accused them before our God day and night.” (Rev. 12:10).

 

 

 

The fact that Satan is bound in Rev 12, is proven-out in Rev 13 which describes that Satan is not there in person...

 

1 hour ago, Faber said:

 

 Doesn't Scripture apply theos to:

1. Judges (John 10:34)

2. Paul (Acts 14:11; 28:6)

3. The man of lawlessness (2 Thessalonians 2:4)

4. Idols (Acts 7:40, 43; 19:26; 1 Corinthians 8:5; Galatians 4:8; Philippians 3:19)

5. Herod (Acts 12:22)

 

Those examples are either plural and/or anarthrous...

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1 hour ago, Bowman said:

Theos is a title for God, alone.... 🙂

Not quite ‘alone’ ... (but almost).

 

[Jhn 10:35 NASB] 35 "If he called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture cannot be broken),

10:35   εἰ ἐκείνους εἶπεν θεοὺς πρὸς οὓς ὁ λόγος τοῦ θεοῦ ἐγένετο καὶ οὐδύναται λυθῆναι ἡ γραφή


[Act 7:43 NASB] 43 'YOU ALSO TOOK ALONG THE TABERNACLE OF MOLOCH AND THE STAR OF THE GOD ROMPHA, THE IMAGES WHICH YOU MADE TO WORSHIP. I ALSO WILL REMOVE YOU BEYOND BABYLON.'

7:43   καὶ ἀνελάβετε τὴν σκηνὴν τοῦ Μολὸχ καὶ τὸ ἄστρον τοῦ θεοῦ ὑμῶνῬαιφάν τοὺς τύπους οὓς ἐποιήσατε προσκυνεῖν αὐτοῖς καὶ μετοικιῶ ὑμᾶςἐπέκεινα Βαβυλῶνος


[Act 12:22 NASB] 22 The people kept crying out, "The voice of a god and not of a man!"

12:22   ὁ δὲ δῆμος ἐπεφώνει θεοῦ φωνὴ καὶ οὐκ ἀνθρώπου

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1 hour ago, Origen said:

He also says:

 

"Modern translations have correctly rendered δαιμόνιον as “demon” and have, for the most part, recognized that διάβολος is monadic (cf., e.g., 1 Pet 5:8; Rev 20:2)."  Wallace identifies διάβολος as monadic.

 

But Wallace never cites the lexicons...

 

1 hour ago, atpollard said:

Not quite ‘alone’ ... (but almost).

 

[Jhn 10:35 NASB] 35 "If he called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture cannot be broken),

10:35   εἰ ἐκείνους εἶπεν θεοὺς πρὸς οὓς ὁ λόγος τοῦ θεοῦ ἐγένετο καὶ οὐδύναται λυθῆναι ἡ γραφή


[Act 7:43 NASB] 43 'YOU ALSO TOOK ALONG THE TABERNACLE OF MOLOCH AND THE STAR OF THE GOD ROMPHA, THE IMAGES WHICH YOU MADE TO WORSHIP. I ALSO WILL REMOVE YOU BEYOND BABYLON.'

7:43   καὶ ἀνελάβετε τὴν σκηνὴν τοῦ Μολὸχ καὶ τὸ ἄστρον τοῦ θεοῦ ὑμῶνῬαιφάν τοὺς τύπους οὓς ἐποιήσατε προσκυνεῖν αὐτοῖς καὶ μετοικιῶ ὑμᾶςἐπέκεινα Βαβυλῶνος


[Act 12:22 NASB] 22 The people kept crying out, "The voice of a god and not of a man!"

12:22   ὁ δὲ δῆμος ἐπεφώνει θεοῦ φωνὴ καὶ οὐκ ἀνθρώπου

 

Those examples are either plural and/or anarthrous, or in the genitive...

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 From what I have seen the evidence does not point to "the god of this world" to the Lord Jesus in 2 Corinthians 4:4. It corresponds to "the ruler of this world" in John 12:31. Neither the BDAG (3rd Edition), Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon and Vine's Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words affirm that it refers to the Lord Jesus.

 In 'Jesus as God: The New Testament Use of Theos in Reference to Jesus' by Murray Harris this passage is not even seriously explored whether it refers to Jesus or not.

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Then I saw an angel coming down from heaven, holding in his hand the key to the bottomless pit and a great chain. And he seized the dragon, that ancient serpent, who is the devil and Satan, and bound him for a thousand years, and threw him into the pit, and shut it and sealed it over him, so that he might not deceive the nations any longer, until the thousand years were ended. After that he must be released for a little while.

Revelation 20:1-3 ESV

 

If the binding of Satan took place at the cross then Satan was released about AD 1030.  That means he is at work in the world today without any restrictions.

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16 hours ago, Bowman said:

But Wallace never cites the lexicons...

Why would he?  First, there are only two alternatives (i.e. either it is the Devil or not the Devil).  It is not as if any lexicon is going to change that.  Second, his argument is based upon Greek grammar which by the way you are unable to refute.  Third, lexicon evidence supports him (see some of the evidence below).
 

17 hours ago, Bowman said:

The lexicons list lower-case 'devil' for δαιμόνιον.

 

Likewise, the lexicons list lower-case 'devil' for διάβολος.

 

Again.....fully supporting that 1 Peter 5.8 is not referencing the freedom of THE Devil, himself....

That is a very poor argument.

 

First, your claim is not accurate.  Here are three examples.

1861448543_Image5-16-19at8_08AM.jpg.4bca09623183808c2b242b4396c0421e.jpg

Greek–English Lexicon of the New Testament Based on Semantic Domains 2nd Ed., Vol. 1, p. 145

 

 

933371414_PhotoMay1681808AM.jpg.f9ddad216e445f87ea2d8bccaa10337d.jpg

A Concise Greek-English Dictionary of the New Testament by Barclay M. Newman p. 42.  By the way this dictionary is found in the UBS5 Greek NT.

 

 

1871931890_Image5-16-19at8_25AM.jpg.8ea879f43e62b49b58ff43056eff1ce1.jpg

Greek-English Lexicon of the Septuagint 3rd Corrected Ed, Compiled by Johan Lust, Erik Eynikel, and Katrin Hauspie p. 136.

 

 

Second, even those lexicons that don't capitalize "Devil" make it clear they are speaking of a particular and specific being\individual.

Quote

in our lit. as title of the principal transcendent evil being the adversary/devil
A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature 3rd Ed. p. 226

 

Quote

In contrast, διάβολος is used 37x, incl. 14x in the Gospels (but not in Mark) and 5x in Revelation; among the letters ascribed to Paul, it occurs only in Ephesians and the Pastorals. The adjectival sense “slanderous” occurs in three passages, where it is applied to human beings (1 Tim 3:11; 2 Tim 3:2; Titus 2:3). Elsewhere it is always a subst. applied to Satan (indirectly in John 6:70, where Judas is called “a devil”; cf. 13:2); thus it functions as a title or even a proper name (see esp. Rev 12:9; 20:2).
New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology and Exegesis Vol. 1, 691.

 

Quote

In the Bible and in ecclesiastical writings ho diabolos (also diabolos without the article; cf. Winer’s Grammar, 124 (118); Buttmann, 89 (78)) is applied katʾ exochēn to the one called in Hebrew has′āṭān, ho satanas (which see), viz., Satan, the prince of demons, the author of evil, persecuting good men...
Thayer’s Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament p. 135

 

By the way I looked up Thayer's reference to Winer’s Grammar, 124.  Winer also supports "the devil" reading.

 

The evidence is against your claim.  Three advance Greek grammars do not support your view nor do the lexicons.

 

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3 hours ago, theophilus said:

Then I saw an angel coming down from heaven, holding in his hand the key to the bottomless pit and a great chain. And he seized the dragon, that ancient serpent, who is the devil and Satan, and bound him for a thousand years, and threw him into the pit, and shut it and sealed it over him, so that he might not deceive the nations any longer, until the thousand years were ended. After that he must be released for a little while.

Revelation 20:1-3 ESV

 

If the binding of Satan took place at the cross then Satan was released about AD 1030.  That means he is at work in the world today without any restrictions.

Are you of the understanding the pit, dragon, chain and key are literal as 1000? 

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18 hours ago, Faber said:

 From what I have seen the evidence does not point to "the god of this world" to the Lord Jesus in 2 Corinthians 4:4. It corresponds to "the ruler of this world" in John 12:31. Neither the BDAG (3rd Edition), Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon and Vine's Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words affirm that it refers to the Lord Jesus.

 In 'Jesus as God: The New Testament Use of Theos in Reference to Jesus' by Murray Harris this passage is not even seriously explored whether it refers to Jesus or not.

 

'The Ruler' baton of this world has been passed from Satan to Jesus, as declared in Rev 1.5, which further proves that Satan was bound at The Cross, when it declares Jesus as being The Ruler due to His blood which released us from our sins.

 

Regarding 2 Cor 4.4, and, contrary to popular modern belief, ‘The God of this age’, (ho Theos tou aiōnos toutou), actually pertains to Jesus Christ and NOT Satan, and provides yet another potent scriptural proof for Jesus’ deity.

 

Outside of 2 Cor 4.4, the only other inflections of ‘blinded’ (i.e. etyphlōsen & etyphlōken), used in the entire NT, are located in John 12, and 1 John 2, and have Jesus as the subject:

 

·      John 12 records that Isaiah wrote about Jesus, ‘The Arm of God’, ‘His Glory’ as blinding the thoughts of the unbelievers.

 

·      1 John 2 records without Jesus’ light, the unbelievers are blinded.

 

 

 

10 hours ago, theophilus said:

Then I saw an angel coming down from heaven, holding in his hand the key to the bottomless pit and a great chain. And he seized the dragon, that ancient serpent, who is the devil and Satan, and bound him for a thousand years, and threw him into the pit, and shut it and sealed it over him, so that he might not deceive the nations any longer, until the thousand years were ended. After that he must be released for a little while.

Revelation 20:1-3 ESV

 

If the binding of Satan took place at the cross then Satan was released about AD 1030.  That means he is at work in the world today without any restrictions.

 

The ‘1,000 years’ (Rev 20.2 – 7) is also referred to as ‘1260 days of prophecy’ (Rev 11.3); ‘1260 days of nourishment’ (Rev 12.6); ‘time, and times and half a time of nourishment’ (Rev 12.14); and ‘42 months’ (Rev 11.2; 13.5).

 

The important thing to remember is that numbers mark a time period in which events transpire....but not an exact time period that matches the number.
 

 

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9 hours ago, Origen said:

Why would he?  First, there are only two alternatives (i.e. either it is the Devil or not the Devil).  It is not as if any lexicon is going to change that.  Second, his argument is based upon Greek grammar which by the way you are unable to refute.  Third, lexicon evidence supports him (see some of the evidence below).
 

 

Firstly, lexicons do indeed change it, as they list all possible semantics of any particular term.

 

Secondly, Wallace already informed the reader to use the 'entire noun phrase', not just a single word.

 

To that end, Wallace is not in the business of performing exegesis, he merely provided his unreferenced opinion.

 

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13 minutes ago, Bowman said:

'The Ruler' baton of this world has been passed from Satan to Jesus, as declared in Rev 1.5, which further proves that Satan was bound at The Cross, when it declares Jesus as being The Ruler due to His blood which released us from our sins.

 

 The prince of the power of the air (Ephesians 2:2) is Satan.

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9 hours ago, Origen said:

 

 

The evidence is against your claim.  Three advance Greek grammars do not support your view nor do the lexicons.

 

Why not show your exegesis?

 

Besides, there are legions of other scriptural passages that proudly declare that Satan is most assuredly bound today.

 

Now...either you have a contradiction in scripture....or, you have mis-interpreted 1 Peter...

1 minute ago, Faber said:

 

 The prince of the power of the air (Ephesians 2:2) is Satan.

 

Sure is...

 

But the context says that 'you FORMERLY walked according to the course of this world, according to the ruler of the power of the air...'

 

Formerly is past tense...

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21 minutes ago, Bowman said:

But the context says that 'you FORMERLY walked according to the course of this world, according to the ruler of the power of the air...'

 

Formerly is past tense...

 That is how they once walked but that doesn't rule out that Satan is still the prince of the power of the air who now worketh in the sons of disobedience.

 Acts 26:18 also teaches that unbelievers are (right now) under his dominion. If he was fully bound his dominion would be powerless.

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21 minutes ago, Faber said:

 That is how they once walked but that doesn't rule out that Satan is still the prince of the power of the air who now worketh in the sons of disobedience.

 Acts 26:18 also teaches that unbelievers are (right now) under his dominion. If he was fully bound his dominion would be powerless.

 

Both passages state that Satan is 'putting forth power'....which refers to his demons.

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45 minutes ago, Faber said:

That doesn't rule out it refers to him.

 

Actually, it does when you consider the rest of scripture.

 

The 'Power' of Satan is referred to numerous things in Luke 10:

·         Demons

·         Snakes & Scorpions

·         The spirits

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He is whom they derive their power from. He is the source.

 If someone does things by the power of God it necessitates that God is alive and active.

 

 Doesn't Revelation 12:12 warn us about the wrath of the Devil? If he is fully bound, why give the "woe" mentioned in this passage. He may have wrath, but if fully bound he is powerless which would mean there would be no cause for this warning. Moreover, Revelation 12:17 teaches that he will make war with believers. If bound then he would be powerless to make war.

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16 minutes ago, Faber said:

He is whom they derive their power from. He is the source.

 If someone does things by the power of God it necessitates that God is alive and active.

 

 

The power of Satan are the demons.

 

The Power of God is The Holy Spirit, The Third Person of The Trinity.

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