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Faber

Psalm 34: Jesus is the Lord (YHWH)

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 Psalm 34 is a "Jesus Psalm" in that it refers to Him as YHWH, worship is properly rendered unto Him, His omniscience is taught, etc.

 In each verse or verses below I make reference to that which applies unto the Lord Jesus.

 

Psalm 34 (NASB)

1 I will bless the Lord at all times;
His praise shall continually be in my mouth.
2 My soul will make its boast in the Lord;
The humble will hear it and rejoice.

 We are to praise the Lord Jesus in doxology (2 Timothy 4:18; 2 Peter 3:18) and we are to boast in Him as our Lord (1 Corinthians 1:31; Philippians 3:8)


3 O magnify the Lord with me,
And let us exalt His name together.

 We are to magnify the Lord Jesus (Acts 19:17) for His name is exalted (Philippians 2:9-11).

 

4 I sought the Lord, and He answered me,
And delivered me from all my fears.

 To seek the Lord entails calling on the Lord (Psalm 14:2, 4; Jeremiah 29:12-13; Isaiah 55:6). We are to call on the Lord Jesus (Acts 9:14, 21; Romans 10:13; 1 Corinthians 1:2; 2 Timothy 2:22) which demonstrates He is being sought.


5 They looked to Him and were radiant,
And their faces will never be ashamed.

 When we abide in Jesus we can look to Him and not be ashamed at His coming (1 John 2:28 KJV).


6 This poor man cried, and the Lord heard him
And saved him out of all his troubles.

 When Stephen cried unto the Lord Jesus, He heard him and by receiving his spirit Jesus saved him out of all his troubles (Acts 7:59-60). Furthermore, as a righteous man, Stephen, had a refuge in the Lord Jesus when he died (Proverbs 14:32; cf. Psalm 34:22).

 

7 The angel of the Lord encamps around those who fear Him,
And rescues them.

 The Lord Jesus is the Angel/Messenger of the Lord. (See the OP by William and my post)

https://www.christforums.com/topic/2354-who-is-the-angel-of-the-lord/?tab=comments#comment-65482

 

8 O taste and see that the Lord is good;
How blessed is the man who takes refuge in Him!

 Peter applies the Lord (YHWH) unto the Lord Jesus in 1 Peter 2:3 (cf. 1 Peter 2:4).


9 O fear the Lord, you His saints;
For to those who fear Him there is no want.

 We are to fear the Lord Jesus (Acts 9:31; Ephesians 5:21; 6:5; Colossians 3:22).


10 The young lions do lack and suffer hunger;
But they who seek the Lord shall not be in want of any good thing.

 For seeking the Lord see verse 4 above.


11 Come, you children, listen to me;
I will teach you the fear of the Lord.

 Concerning fearing the Lord see verse 9 above.


12 Who is the man who desires life
And loves length of days that he may see good?
13 Keep your tongue from evil
And your lips from speaking deceit.
14 Depart from evil and do good;
Seek peace and pursue it.

15 The eyes of the Lord are toward the righteous
And His ears are open to their cry.
16 The face of the Lord is against evildoers,
To cut off the memory of them from the earth.

 As with 1 Peter 2:3 (cf. Psalm 34:8), Peter applies Psalm 34:12-16a unto the Lord Jesus in 1 Peter 3:10-12. This is very significant because not only does this demonstrate that the Lord Jesus is the proper recipient of prayer but also YHWH (Lord) of v.15 and v. 16 are applied to Him in 1 Peter 3:12. Notice too, that the expression "the eyes of the Lord" are also applied unto the Lord Jesus which teaches He is omniscient (God).


17 The righteous cry, and the Lord hears
And delivers them out of all their troubles.

 The Lord Jesus "rescued/delivered" Paul from the lion's mouth (2 Timothy 4:17) and will "rescue/deliver" him from every evil deed (2 Timothy 4:18).


18 The Lord is near to the brokenhearted
And saves those who are crushed in spirit.

 See Luke 7:36-50.

 

19 Many are the afflictions of the righteous,
But the Lord delivers him out of them all.

 See verse 17 above.


20 He keeps all his bones,

Not one of them is broken.

 See John 19:36.


21 Evil shall slay the wicked,
And those who hate the righteous will be condemned.

 Those who hate the righteous will be condemned, whereas the righteous who take refuge in the Lord Jesus will never be condemned (Romans 8:1; cf. verse 22 below).


22 The Lord redeems the soul of His servants,
And none of those who take refuge in Him will be condemned.

 The Lord Jesus redeems the soul of His servants (Titus 2:14). Moreover, those who take refuge in the Lord are the ones who have tasted His goodness. Peter applies this unto the Lord Jesus in 1 Peter 2:3 (cf. Psalm 34:8, and see also Stephen in Psalm 34:6 above).

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Faber glad you brought this up, I would ask, how would you explain between the translations where the OT shows the difference between the word Lord when the NT does not. Maybe you know what I might mean because I think I need to work on showing that through the scriptures myself, and likely by presenting the scriptures which could better show this then just words alone.  Not sure I am being very clear here, but for example lets say,  Psalm 110:1 The LORD said unto MY Lord there showing two Lords when we know there is one Lord of course (and the one Lord being instructed to sit at the other LORD's right hand is  Christ the Lord (as we all know) David himself acknowledging the both as translated there in the OT. David even acknowledging the one being  instructed by the LORD as MY Lord there ). Jesus brings that same verse up. Acts 2:36 brings up the same thing between them telling us God himself made Jesus Lord  who himself put all things under Christ subjecting all things unto Christ (God himself being excepted of being under as is shown in 1 Corinthians 15:27 ) This particular common theme is probably the easiest one to show a pattern and an unquestionable common theme between them given the direct quotes and the words used between them to better show how the difference between those words don't really come through between translations. I am not a translation expert here obviously but I do go to the translations for help and they haven't been too helpful to coming out to the same conclusion according to them, if only just here.

 

My question would be how would you show what you just posted (in the above) using Psalm 110:1 and the common theme between them as shown in Jesus quotes of it and the apostles use of the same, especially of God making Jesus Lord in Acts 2:36 which springs off of the same verse quoted in Psalm 110:1 where the one is speaking to the other, or in other words "the Father/ The LORD speaking to the Son MY Lord there"

 

For example how is one to show that Jesus The LORD would be saying to Jesus MY Lord (as David shows it) to sit thou at my right hand... know what I am asking? Or is my confusion beyond help? lol

 

I'm, not too swift over here and, sometimes it takes a little awhile before I can wrap my head around things.

 

 

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Hello Fireproof,

 

 I'll try to answer all your questions. If I miss anything or if you want me to discuss anything further please let me know.

 

1. You wrote, "The LORD said unto MY Lord there showing two Lords when we know there is one Lord of course..."

 Agree. There is only one Lord. 

The Lord (the Father) said unto my Lord (Jesus).

 In Hebrews 1:8 the Father (who is "God") refers to the Lord Jesus as "God," and in John 20:28 Thomas refers to the Lord Jesus as "my God" and yet we know there is only one God. This demonstrates that "God" does not only refer to the Father, but also to the Lord Jesus.

 

2. Concerning the particular words used in Psalm 110:1 a good and detailed analysis of them can be seen in the following article by Sam Shamoun:

https://www.answering-islam.org/Shamoun/psalm110_1.htm

 

 3. Another thing to notice about Psalm 110:1 is how the words are used elsewhere. The bold face below is mine.

Psalm 110:1
A Psalm of David.
The LORD says to my Lord:
Sit at My right hand
Until I make Your enemies a footstool for Your feet.” (NASB)

Mark 14:62
And Jesus said, “I am; and you shall see THE SON OF MAN SITTING AT THE RIGHT HAND OF POWER, and COMING WITH THE CLOUDS OF HEAVEN.” (NASB)

Daniel 7:13
“I kept looking in the night visions,
And behold, with the clouds of heaven
One like a Son of Man was coming,
And He came up to the Ancient of Days
And was presented before Him. (NASB)

All three passages relate to one another. This is important because according to Daniel 7:14 the Lord Jesus receives 'pelach' which is worship that is properly due unto God alone. This demonstrates that the Lord Jesus is God.[*1]

 

 

[*1] See the worship of the Lord Jesus in "Daniel 7:13-14" in the pdf from the following link (pages 17-18):

https://www.christforums.com/topic/6234-yes-it-is-proper-to-worship-the-lord-jesus-christ/?tab=comments#comment-35084

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Acts 2:36

 Therefore let all the house of Israel know for certain that God has made Him both Lord and Christ—this Jesus whom you crucified (NASB).


      1. Jesus is referred to as the "Son of God" in Matthew 26:63-64; John 1:49; 11:27 but it wasn't "declared" until after His resurrection (Romans 1:4). Notice also that although Jesus is quite often referred to as "Lord" in the Gospels it wasn't until after His resurrection where the first instance of "the Lord Jesus" is to be found (Luke 24:3; cf. Mark 16:19).[*1]

          a. W. E. Vine: The title 'Lord', as given to the Saviour, in its full significance rests upon the resurrection, Acts 2:36; Rom. 10:9; 14:9 (Vine's Expository Dictionary of Old and New Testament Words, Lord, page 690). 

          b. Robert Bowman and J. Ed Komoszewski: In the context of Luke's writings (Luke and Acts), this statement does not mean that Jesus was not "Lord" prior to his resurrection, since Jesus was Lord and Messiah (Christ) even when he was born in Bethlehem (Luke 2:11). Rather, Peter means that God had exalted Jesus so that people would now recognize him for who he truly is, both Lord and Messiah. The idea is similar to Paul's statement that in the resurrection God "declared" Jesus "to be Son of God with power" (Rom. 1:4) (Putting Jesus in His Place: The Case for the Deity of Christ, pages 160-161).    
          c. Murray Harris: The New Testament records two early and widespread confessions made about Jesus by the first Christians. One focused on his messiahship: 'the Messiah is Jesus' (ho Christos Iēsous, Acts 18:5, 28) or 'Jesus is the Messiah' (cf. Acts 9:22; 17:3); the other, on his lordship: 'Jesus is Lord' (Kyrios Iēsous, Rom. 10:9; 1 Cor. 12:3; cf. Phil. 2:11). When a New Testament writer gives Jesus his full name, 'the Lord Jesus Christ' (e.g., 1 Cor. 1:3, 7, 10), these two confessions are being combined, asserting his deity ('Lord'), his humanity ('Jesus') and his messiahiship ('Christ'). Such a conflation of confessions is also found in Acts 2:36, where, as the climax of his Pentecost speech, Peter announces: 'So let all the house of Israel know without a shadow of doubt that God has made him both Lord and Messiah - this very Jesus whom you crucified' (Slave of Christ: A New Testament Metaphor for Total Devotion to Christ, page 87, the underlined and bold face are mine).

 

 

[*1] I. Howard Marshal: The phrase declares the new status of the risen Jesus; he is Lord (The New International Greek Testament Commentary: The Gospel of Luke, page 884-885).

Edited by Faber
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Hey Faber,  we had a similar conversation before here 

A few of the verses you posted (and how I might understand them) are posted there so I wont touch upon them here.

I do understand that the Jesus set at the right hand of the Father is as the LORD showing the resurrection of Christ and his being begotten from the dead there. I see that as more of an open show of what was spoken of prior, a seeing before as noted in scripture of what God would bring to pass in Christ and setting Christ as Lord. To acknowledge the son the same has the Father however to acknowledge the Father (and not the Son) would not be the same thing. So I am not convinced that saying that the LORD (there in Psalm 101) is Christ speaking to himself if he told us he came not into this world of himself but the Father sent him. You might not be saying that, I do know that David speaks prophetically concerning his death calling the Son of God (Jesus) MY Lord, but so also does Elizabeth when it comes to addressing Mary as the mother of MY Lord before he was born.

 

As far as the Psalm goes its that the LORD is speaking to David's Lord (who is thought to be the Son of David) and who is the Son of God. But you don't think Jesus is speaking to himself (basically) rather than the Father (as one person) addressing the Son (as a person) in David, by the Holy Ghost (as a person) in the one God?

 

I'll get the swing of this :)

 

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Does Jesus literally set to the right of God ?

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 There are a few other things to consider in identifying the Lord Jesus as YHWH.

 

1. Since Acts 2:34 cites Psalm 110:1 it is important to also consider the fact that the "Lord," in reference to Jesus, used in Acts 2:21 is cited from Joel 2:32 (Joel 3:5 in the LXX). In this Old Testament passage YHWH is now applied unto the Lord Jesus.

https://www.christforums.com/topic/8806-calling-on-the-name-of-the-lord-praying-to-jesus/?tab=comments#comment-53975

 

2. Notice also in Acts 2:25 David also spoke of the "Lord" being at his right hand which is the same phrase used in Psalm 110:5 (cf. Psalm 16:8) - Peter applies this "Lord" (YHWH; cf. Psalm 110:1) unto the Lord Jesus.

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14 minutes ago, Becky said:

Does Jesus literally set to the right of God ?

I don't know if the position of right or left of God are really that important at this point, since Jesus said,

 

Luke 22:69 Hereafter shall the Son of man sit on the right hand of the power of God.

 

And then here,

 

Acts 7:56 And said, Behold, I see the heavens opened, and the Son of man standing on the right hand of God.

 

So it went from sitting to standing and at the right hand, and then to those who overcome Jesus says,

 

Rev 3:21 To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne.

 

Then again, when the sons of Zebedee asked about sitting on the right and left of him Jesus responded (concerning this part) 

 

Mark 10:40 But to sit on my right hand and on my left hand is not mine to give; but it shall be given to them for whom it is prepared.

 

And we know he is our high priest who is set on the right hand of the throne of the Majesty in the heavens

 

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Let me try again.  :classic_smile: Does God literally set in Heaven what we would call 24/7.

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7 minutes ago, Faber said:

 There are a few other things to consider in identifying the Lord Jesus as YHWH.

 

1. Since Acts 2:34 cites Psalm 110:1 it is important to also consider the fact that the "Lord," in reference to Jesus, used in Acts 2:21 is cited from Joel 2:32 (Joel 3:5 in the LXX). In this Old Testament passage YHWH is now applied unto the Lord Jesus.

https://www.christforums.com/topic/8806-calling-on-the-name-of-the-lord-praying-to-jesus/?tab=comments#comment-53975

 

2. Notice also in Acts 2:25 David also spoke of the "Lord" being at his right hand which is the same phrase used in Psalm 110:5 (cf. Psalm 16:8) - Peter applies this "Lord" (YHWH; cf. Psalm 110:1) unto the Lord Jesus.

Well just say the Lord was at your right hand wouldnt you be on his left then? That would leave his right opened no?

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4 minutes ago, Becky said:

Let me try again.  :classic_smile: Does God literally set in Heaven what we would call 24/7.

His throne is set in heaven, I dont know if the angels take it down at certain times or not though

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5 minutes ago, Fireproof said:

Well just say the Lord was at your right hand wouldnt you be on his left then? That would leave his right opened no?

 

 I don't know how this addresses my points that Jesus is YHWH. In fact, from the OP --> Peter applies the Lord (YHWH) from Psalm 34:8 unto the Lord Jesus in 1 Peter 2:3 (cf. 1 Peter 2:4).

 

 How can Jesus not not be YHWH based on the above information?

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How can Jesus not be YHWH when Peter cites Joel 2:32 (Joel 3:5 in the LXX) in reference to the Lord Jesus in Acts 2:21?

 

In fact, if we just stick with Peter it is very clear that he believed and taught that the Lord Jesus is God.

See my post dated November 18th.

https://www.christforums.com/topic/7433-kermit-zarleys-confusion-concerning-the-lord-jesus/?tab=comments#comment-70755

 

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55 minutes ago, Fireproof said:

I do know that David speaks prophetically concerning his death calling the Son of God (Jesus) MY Lord, but so also does Elizabeth when it comes to addressing Mary as the mother of MY Lord before he was born.

 

 

 Concerning the fact that "Jesus is Lord" and what it means:

     1. Ceslas Spicq: "Let every tongue proclaim that Jesus Christ is Lord," that is, God. Such is the object of faith profession and worship: "Believe in the Lord Jesus and you will be saved." Henceforth, Christians are "those who call upon the name of our Lord Jesus Christ," that is, who worship his divine majesty and implore his sovereign protection (Theological Lexicon of the New Testament, kyrios, 2:350). 
     2. Murray Harris: 'Jesus is Lord'...What, then, did the earliest Christians understand as the implications of this confession? To judge from the New Testament use of kyrios in reference to Jesus, whenever worshipping Christians repeat this confession of faith, we are doing several things...We are acknowledging the deity of Christ. When Thomas addressed Jesus as 'My Lord and my God' (John 20:28), he was applying to the Nazarene an expression used commonly in the Psalms in reference to Yahweh. Moreover, the combination of 'Lord' and 'God' shows that the title 'Lord' connotes divinity (Slave of Christ: A New Testament Metaphor for Total Devotion to Jesus, page 89).

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7 minutes ago, Faber said:

 

 I don't know how this addresses my points that Jesus is YHWH. In fact, from the OP --> Peter applies the Lord (YHWH) from Psalm 34:8 unto the Lord Jesus in 1 Peter 2:3 (cf. 1 Peter 2:4).

 

 How can Jesus not not be YHWH based on the above information?

You keep throwing things into the mix and some of the verses I scratch my head at 1 Peter 2:4 ? God laid the foundation a stone, a tried stone as shown in Isaiah 28:16, the sure foundation she is affirmed to be in 2 Ti 2:19 and a living stone we come to the Father by as show in 1 Peter 2:4. How is God laying the foundation, a stone (being Christ) mean what you are showing?

 

And here, from back further in regards to Psalm 110:4-5 the first part of the verse is included which says

 

Psalm 110:4-5 The LORD hath sworn, and will not repent, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchizedek

The Lord (( at )) thy right hand shall strike through kings ((( in ))) the day of his wrath.

 

Compare with the day of wrath here

 

Rev 6:15-17 And the kings of the earth, and the great men, and the rich men, and the chief captains, and the mighty men, and every bondman, and every free man, hid themselves in the dens and in the rocks of the mountains; And said to the mountains and rocks, Fall on us, and hide us from the face of him that sitteth on the throne, (((( and )))) from the wrath of the Lamb: For the great day of his wrath ((( is come )))); and who shall be able to stand?

 

In mentions the tasting the good word of God in Hebrews 6:5 also just as 1 Peter 2:2 -3 states more fully, As newborn babes, desire the sincere milk of the word, that ye may grow thereby: If so be ye have tasted that the Lord is gracious. To whom coming, as unto a living stone, disallowed indeed of men, but chosen of God, and precious

 

For us there is but one God even the Father and one Lord Jesus Christ, he is the stone (the living one Peter mentions) which is rejected of men but chosen of God. I don't see any contradictions

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43 minutes ago, Faber said:

How can Jesus not be YHWH when Peter cites Joel 2:32 (Joel 3:5 in the LXX) in reference to the Lord Jesus in Acts 2:21?

 

In fact, if we just stick with Peter it is very clear that he believed and taught that the Lord Jesus is God.

See my post dated November 18th.

https://www.christforums.com/topic/7433-kermit-zarleys-confusion-concerning-the-lord-jesus/?tab=comments#comment-70755

 

I already gave the link where we had the discussion on the Son being addressed as God so I will not go down that road again because that isn't even a beef of mine here. I am not in a position to wrangle over the same things, I do have a bit of trouble typing for long periods of time so I will just say that and leave things where they are, I wont ask again, it shouldn't be too important to me how you come to your positions.

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32 minutes ago, Faber said:

 

 Concerning the fact that "Jesus is Lord" and what it means:

     1. Ceslas Spicq: "Let every tongue proclaim that Jesus Christ is Lord," that is, God. Such is the object of faith profession and worship: "Believe in the Lord Jesus and you will be saved." Henceforth, Christians are "those who call upon the name of our Lord Jesus Christ," that is, who worship his divine majesty and implore his sovereign protection (Theological Lexicon of the New Testament, kyrios, 2:350). 
     2. Murray Harris: 'Jesus is Lord'...What, then, did the earliest Christians understand as the implications of this confession? To judge from the New Testament use of kyrios in reference to Jesus, whenever worshipping Christians repeat this confession of faith, we are doing several things...We are acknowledging the deity of Christ. When Thomas addressed Jesus as 'My Lord and my God' (John 20:28), he was applying to the Nazarene an expression used commonly in the Psalms in reference to Yahweh. Moreover, the combination of 'Lord' and 'God' shows that the title 'Lord' connotes divinity (Slave of Christ: A New Testament Metaphor for Total Devotion to Jesus, page 89).

God made Jesus both Lord and Christ 

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1 hour ago, Becky said:

Does Jesus literally set to the right of God ?

 

1 hour ago, Becky said:

Let me try again.   Does God literally set in Heaven what we would call 24/7.

 

Yes, the right of an omnipresent God. More precisely the right hand of the Father (spirit).  :classic_ninja: 

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9 minutes ago, William said:

 

Yes, the right of an omnipresent God. :classic_ninja: 

True, he can be in more then one place (heaven) and make his abode in people

 

Isaiah 57:15 For thus saith the high and lofty One that inhabiteth eternity, whose name is Holy; I dwell in the high and holy place,

with him also that is of a contrite and humble spirit, to revive the spirit of the humble, and to revive the heart of the contrite ones.

 

John 14:23 Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him.

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12 minutes ago, Fireproof said:

True, he can be in more then one place (heaven) and make his abode in people

 

Isaiah 57:15 For thus saith the high and lofty One that inhabiteth eternity, whose name is Holy; I dwell in the high and holy place,

with him also that is of a contrite and humble spirit, to revive the spirit of the humble, and to revive the heart of the contrite ones.

 

John 14:23 Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him.

Psalm 139:7-12.

 

Omnipresent is everywhere present. The right of that, and there's Jesus 🤣

 

Not laughing at you Fireproof, just self-amused by a literalistical interpretation.

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1 hour ago, Fireproof said:

You keep throwing things into the mix and some of the verses I scratch my head at 1 Peter 2:4 ?

 1 Peter 2:4 shows that 1 Peter 2:3 is in reference to the Lord Jesus.

59 minutes ago, Fireproof said:

God made Jesus both Lord and Christ 

 I already addressed Acts 2:36 above.

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32 minutes ago, William said:

Psalm 139:7-12.

 

Omnipresent is everywhere present. The right of that, and there's Jesus 🤣

 

Not laughing at you Fireproof, just self-amused by a literalistical interpretation.

Thats alright I can laugh at myself, and sure, in heaven in folks, and in hell he is shown about everywhere 

 

Psalm 139:8 If I ascend up into heaven, thou art there: if I make my bed in hell, behold, thou art there.

 

 

 

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1 hour ago, Fireproof said:

it shouldn't be too important to me how you come to your positions.

  It's not difficult to come to my positions when I go by how the words of the Bible are properly defined.

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4 minutes ago, Faber said:

 1 Peter 2:4 shows that 1 Peter 2:3 is in reference to the Lord Jesus.

 I already addressed Acts 2:36 above.

Heres the verses 1 Peter 2:2- 4 

As newborn babes, desire the sincere milk of the word, that ye may grow thereby: If so be ye have tasted that the Lord is gracious. ((( To whom coming)))) as unto a living stone, disallowed indeed of men, but chosen of God, and precious.

 

The Lord is gracious (((to whom coming))) as unto a living stone Chosen of God

 

Jesus our Lord is shown as gracious

 

Luke 4:22 And all bare him witness, and wondered at the gracious words which proceeded out of his mouth. And they said, Is not this Joseph's son?

 

Acts 2:36 just shows God made Jesus Lord and Christ, I have no dispute with these verses.

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