Jump to content

The Christian Protestant Community Forums

Sincerely inquiring about the Protestant faith? Welcome to Christforums the Christian Protestant community forums. You'll first need to register in order to join our community. Create or respond to threads on your favorite topics and subjects. Registration takes less than a minute, it's simple, fast, and free! Enjoy the fellowship! God bless, Christforums' Staff
Register now

Community Fellowship

John Calvin puts forward a very simple reason why love is the greatest gift: “Because faith and hope are our own: love is diffused among others.” In other words, faith and hope benefit the possessor, but love always benefits another. In John 13:34–35 Jesus says, “A new command I give you: Love one another. As I have loved you, so you must love one another. By this everyone will know that you are my disciples, if you love one another.” Love always requires an “other” as an object; love cannot remain within itself, and that is part of what makes love the greatest gift.
Placable37

Sinners Can Never Argue That Christ Didn't Love Them

Recommended Posts

Rom 5:18
(18)  Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.

 

I submit that Christ's sacrifice made justification available to all humanity, and that God loved all the world in the giving of His Son to make that justification available. 

 

Joh 14:21
(21)  He that has my commandments, and keeps them, he it is that loves me: and he that loves me shall be loved of my Father, and I will love him, and will manifest myself to him.

 

I also submit that although Christ's sacrifice made justification available to all humanity, and was a demonstration of God's love for all the world, Christ's love can only be applied to those who perceive it.

 

1Jn 3:16 Hereby perceive we the love of God, because he laid down his life for us: and we ought to lay down our lives for the brethren.

1Jn 4:19 We love him, because he first loved us.

  

Rom 5:5  And hope makes not ashamed; because the love of God is shed abroad in our hearts by the Holy Ghost which is given unto us

Rom 5:8  But God commends his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us. 
Rom 8:28  And we know that all things work together for good to them that love God, to them who are the called according to his purpose. 
Rom 8:35  Who shall separate us from the love of Christ? shall tribulation, or distress, or persecution, or famine, or nakedness, or peril, or sword? 
Rom 8:39  Nor height, nor depth, nor any other creature, shall be able to separate us from the love of God, which is in Christ Jesus our Lord. 
 

  • Like 2

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Moderator

Although God does show love to sinners, attonment is actual, not just a possibility.

Our sin dept was canceled by Christ sacrifice on the cross. Colossians 2:14

 

All who Christ died for live unto Him.

1Corinthians 14-15.

 

We see mush in Scriputure that Christ work on the cross is described as a ransom and vicarious.

 

  • Like 1
  • Toast 1

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
8 hours ago, Placable37 said:

Rom 5:18
(18)  Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.

 

I submit that Christ's sacrifice made justification available to all humanity, and that God loved all the world in the giving of His Son to make that justification available. 

I cannot shake the feeling that this is a hollow promise.  For whom, indeed, was the free gift of Christ at the cross given?

 

  • [Romans 3:21-26 NASB] 21 But now apart from the Law [the] righteousness of God has been manifested, being witnessed by the Law and the Prophets, 22 even [the] righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all those who believe; for there is no distinction; 23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 being justified as a gift by His grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus; 25 whom God displayed publicly as a propitiation in His blood through faith. [This was] to demonstrate His righteousness, because in the forbearance of God He passed over the sins previously committed; 26 for the demonstration, [I say,] of His righteousness at the present time, so that He would be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.

 

Righteousness comes through faith in Jesus Christ (Rom 3:22) and all men are in need of it because all men have sinned (Rom 3:23), but justification comes only as a gift by the grace of God (Rom 3:24).  Is that gift of justification really available to all?  Has God given faith in Jesus to all?

 

  • [Romans 5:1-5 NASB] 1 Therefore, having been justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ, 2 through whom also we have obtained our introduction by faith into this grace in which we stand; and we exult in hope of the glory of God. 3 And not only this, but we also exult in our tribulations, knowing that tribulation brings about perseverance; 4 and perseverance, proven character; and proven character, hope; 5 and hope does not disappoint, because the love of God has been poured out within our hearts through the Holy Spirit who was given to us.

Who has been justified by faith ... some or all?

Who has peace with God ... some or all?

To whom is Jesus Christ really LORD ... some or all?

Who stands in grace through the introduction by faith ... some or all?

It is important to understand the context of scripture for proper exegesis.  Who is it being written to?

 

  • [Rom 5:15-17 NASB] 15 But the free gift is not like the transgression. For if by the transgression of the one the many died, much more did the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, abound to the many. 16 The gift is not like [that which came] through the one who sinned; for on the one hand the judgment [arose] from one [transgression] resulting in condemnation, but on the other hand the free gift [arose] from many transgressions resulting in justification. 17 For if by the transgression of the one, death reigned through the one, much more those who receive the abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ.
  • [Rom 5:18-21 NASB] 18 So then as through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness there resulted justification of life to all men. 19 For as through the one man's disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous. 20 The Law came in so that the transgression would increase; but where sin increased, grace abounded all the more, 21 so that, as sin reigned in death, even so grace would reign through righteousness to eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.

Leading up to the quoted verse, we have the gift by the grace of Jesus Christ abounding to the many (Rom 5:15), resulting in justification (Rom 5:16), and reigning in life (Rom 5:17).  Can this really, honestly, be said to be God's plan for all men, or for only some men?  Then comes the quoted verse:

  • [Rom 5:18 NASB] So then as through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness there resulted justification of life to all men.

"So then ..." means 'in light of all that we have just spoken about, we can conclude what follows to be true'.  It does indeed say "all men" twice in that verse.  The first time is related to the condemnation that came through Adam being for all men and the second being  the resulted justification of life to all men.  If "all men" means "every single individual person" as is being implied that God has made salvation available to all in the OP, then does that not demand that we embrace UNIVERSALISM?  Romans 5:18 clearly states that God has not made salvation AVAILABLE to all men, but " through one act of righteousness" (Jesus did die on the cross) "there resulted" (it is a settled fact)  "justification of life" (forgiveness and eternal life) "to all men" (it is critical we get the meaning of this last phrase correct).

 

Let's look at Rom 5:18-21 to see the whole paragraph.  Many will be made righteous (Rom 5:19) but we must not focus on the "many" vs "all" since only "many" were also made sinners.  What we can note is that many WERE (past) made sinners and many WILL BE (future) made righteous.  If "every single person" was intended on the cross, then should they not already (past) be made righteous.  Perhaps it is the fact that the many must yet be born that makes their righteousness a thing of the future.  Sin increased and grace abounded more (Rom 5:20) but just as sin inevitably leads to death, so grace inevitably leads to eternal life (Rom 5:21).  If God's grace is for every single person, then every single person must gain eternal life.

 

Back to Rom 5:18 for one final look.  Did Adam's sin really result in the death of every single person (all men)?  Was no one found "righteous" in the sight of the Lord?  Noah found favor.  Abraham was declared "righteous" by God (because of his faith).  Enoch never died.  What about Elijah and the chariot of fire?  Perhaps the condemnation of "all men" means "some men from each and every nation" (a valid possible meaning for the Greek word).  In that case, might the "all men" of Christ's justification not also mean "some men from each and every nation".  I find it hard to accept that God will grant justification and eternal life to each and every person who ever lives and was just kidding with all those warnings about narrow roads and eternal punishment and a day of judgement.

 

It is a nice thought that anyone can be saved, but I just don't think that it is biblical.

(I would welcome being proven wrong.)

 

 

 

 

  • Like 2
  • Toast 1

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Staff

@atpollard I tried to send you a private message but you're over your quota. Please empty or delete your messages in order to receive new ones.

 

I'll just post here what I was going to send you.

 

Hello brother,

 

Ever notice people use "choose" as merely a mental decision without any corresponding action? I have been observing the "how" which addresses whether we could or could not actually accomplish something. John 3:16 addresses a how. How does God love the world (both Jew and Gentiles)? Obviously, whoever can may believe in Jesus and receive the eternal gift of life. I say obviously because not everyone "does". In John 3:18 we read they that do not believe are condemned already. How are they already condemned? Can they or can they not? Is the standard or bar set so high or is it really low and achievable to everyone without exception?

 

John 6:44 How can we actually come to the Father apart from Christ? How can we achieve that? Wouldn't that require perfect obedience of all Laws in both the Positive and Negative? That is, unless one argues that righteousness is not a requirement to be ever present with God? Or that faith and love are not actually required by Law and therefore are not works? In other words the standard or bar would need be adjusted. Failure to reach the standard is evidence of Original Sin.

 

As you are well aware and have previously made the case "ability" is not synonymous with choice. One can "choose" God, we've seen many unbelievers claim and profess hollow sentiments towards God (one time sinner's prayer or altar call) only later to suggest they sincerely believed and "no longer do". The no longer "do" is what is evidently missing, it was a hollow sentiment, a mental decision that lacked a following corresponding action ~ faith. Faith is an action based on belief sustained by confidence in the object of faith (Jesus Christ). This is one of the reasons I reject OSAS for Perseverance of the saints.

Sounds like a lot of work to me and it is apart from monergism. Monergism doesn't begin with a person's loose hollow sentiment.

 

God bless,

William

  • Like 1
  • Toast 1

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Staff

"Sinners Can Never Argue That Christ Didn't Love Them"

 

Isn't this actually what Jesus conveyed to some sinners in Matthew 7:23?

 

Of course every sinner without exception cannot argue that Christ didn't love them Romans 5:10; 1 John 4:19.

 

God bless,

William

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites

Maybe it should be "Sinners can never legitimately argue that Christ didn't love them."

I think all of us can argue about virtually everything. The question is are the arguments well-founded or not.

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
8 hours ago, atpollard said:

I cannot shake the feeling that this is a hollow promise.  For whom, indeed, was the free gift of Christ at the cross given?

 

  • [Romans 3:21-26 NASB] 21 But now apart from the Law [the] righteousness of God has been manifested, being witnessed by the Law and the Prophets, 22 even [the] righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all those who believe; for there is no distinction; 23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 being justified as a gift by His grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus; 25 whom God displayed publicly as a propitiation in His blood through faith. [This was] to demonstrate His righteousness, because in the forbearance of God He passed over the sins previously committed; 26 for the demonstration, [I say,] of His righteousness at the present time, so that He would be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.

Righteousness comes through faith in Jesus Christ (Rom 3:22) and all men are in need of it because all men have sinned (Rom 3:23), but justification comes only as a gift by the grace of God (Rom 3:24).  Is that gift of justification really available to all?  Has God given faith in Jesus to all?

  • [Romans 5:1-5 NASB] 1 Therefore, having been justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ, 2 through whom also we have obtained our introduction by faith into this grace in which we stand; and we exult in hope of the glory of God. 3 And not only this, but we also exult in our tribulations, knowing that tribulation brings about perseverance; 4 and perseverance, proven character; and proven character, hope; 5 and hope does not disappoint, because the love of God has been poured out within our hearts through the Holy Spirit who was given to us.

Who has been justified by faith ... some or all?

Who has peace with God ... some or all?

To whom is Jesus Christ really LORD ... some or all?

Who stands in grace through the introduction by faith ... some or all?

It is important to understand the context of scripture for proper exegesis.  Who is it being written to?

  • [Rom 5:15-17 NASB] 15 But the free gift is not like the transgression. For if by the transgression of the one the many died, much more did the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, abound to the many. 16 The gift is not like [that which came] through the one who sinned; for on the one hand the judgment [arose] from one [transgression] resulting in condemnation, but on the other hand the free gift [arose] from many transgressions resulting in justification. 17 For if by the transgression of the one, death reigned through the one, much more those who receive the abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ.
  • [Rom 5:18-21 NASB] 18 So then as through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness there resulted justification of life to all men. 19 For as through the one man's disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous. 20 The Law came in so that the transgression would increase; but where sin increased, grace abounded all the more, 21 so that, as sin reigned in death, even so grace would reign through righteousness to eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.

Leading up to the quoted verse, we have the gift by the grace of Jesus Christ abounding to the many (Rom 5:15), resulting in justification (Rom 5:16), and reigning in life (Rom 5:17).  Can this really, honestly, be said to be God's plan for all men, or for only some men?  Then comes the quoted verse:

  • [Rom 5:18 NASB] So then as through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness there resulted justification of life to all men.

"So then ..." means 'in light of all that we have just spoken about, we can conclude what follows to be true'.  It does indeed say "all men" twice in that verse.  The first time is related to the condemnation that came through Adam being for all men and the second being  the resulted justification of life to all men.  If "all men" means "every single individual person" as is being implied that God has made salvation available to all in the OP, then does that not demand that we embrace UNIVERSALISM?  Romans 5:18 clearly states that God has not made salvation AVAILABLE to all men, but " through one act of righteousness" (Jesus did die on the cross) "there resulted" (it is a settled fact)  "justification of life" (forgiveness and eternal life) "to all men" (it is critical we get the meaning of this last phrase correct).

 

Let's look at Rom 5:18-21 to see the whole paragraph.  Many will be made righteous (Rom 5:19) but we must not focus on the "many" vs "all" since only "many" were also made sinners.  What we can note is that many WERE (past) made sinners and many WILL BE (future) made righteous.  If "every single person" was intended on the cross, then should they not already (past) be made righteous.  Perhaps it is the fact that the many must yet be born that makes their righteousness a thing of the future.  Sin increased and grace abounded more (Rom 5:20) but just as sin inevitably leads to death, so grace inevitably leads to eternal life (Rom 5:21).  If God's grace is for every single person, then every single person must gain eternal life.

 

Back to Rom 5:18 for one final look.  Did Adam's sin really result in the death of every single person (all men)?  Was no one found "righteous" in the sight of the Lord?  Noah found favor.  Abraham was declared "righteous" by God (because of his faith).  Enoch never died.  What about Elijah and the chariot of fire?  Perhaps the condemnation of "all men" means "some men from each and every nation" (a valid possible meaning for the Greek word).  In that case, might the "all men" of Christ's justification not also mean "some men from each and every nation".  I find it hard to accept that God will grant justification and eternal life to each and every person who ever lives and was just kidding with all those warnings about narrow roads and eternal punishment and a day of judgement.

 

It is a nice thought that anyone can be saved, but I just don't think that it is biblical.

(I would welcome being proven wrong.)

Hi atpollard, It appears you are not happy at the prospect of justification being available to all humanity, even though this is a valid interpretation of Romans 5:18 to be accepted in faith, with support from other Scriptures. This does not mean that justification is applied to all humanity. The next verse teaches that Adam's disobedience made many people sinners, not just a few people but many, and not all humanity because it didn't make Christ a sinner, rather He who knew no sin was made sin on behalf of many people, not a few, that many people, not a few, might be made the righteousness of God in Him (2 Corinthians 5:21).

Romans 5:19 For as through the one man’s disobedience many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the one, many will be made righteous.

 

By way of analogy, a group of travellers who are lost in the Sahara desert desperately need water and are about to expire when one of them thinks they see an oasis in the distance. Many, but not all of them, decide it is worth going the distance to see if water is available. The oasis proves to be real and when they get there water is indeed available. However, the availability of the water alone is not enough to hydrate them and save their lives, for this it must be applied...(just an analogy to illustrate the difference between availability and application)  

Edited by Placable37
added to

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
10 hours ago, Innerfire89 said:

Although God does show love to sinners, attonment is actual, not just a possibility.

Our sin dept was canceled by Christ sacrifice on the cross. Colossians 2:14

All who Christ died for live unto Him.

1Corinthians 14-15.

We see mush much in Scriputure that Christ's work on the cross is described as a ransom and vicarious.

What is the difference between sinners who "put on Christ" before they pass away and those who don't?

I submit that in the Judgment condemnation of the unsaved is not due to any failure of Christ to love sinners. 

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Moderator
15 minutes ago, Placable37 said:

What is the difference between sinners who "put on Christ" before they pass away and those who don't?

I submit that in the Judgment condemnation of the unsaved is not due to any failure of Christ to love sinners. 

The difference is God positively working faith and repentance in the elect and leaving the righteous incapable to their inevitable path to destruction. And Christ does indeed love them by allowing them any necessitates or pleasure in life whatsoever. But Christ does not exhibit his to the reprobate as He does for the elect. All are shown mercy from God to an extent, but the elect don't have the wrath of God upon them.

 

 

  • Like 1

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
31 minutes ago, Innerfire89 said:

The difference is God positively working faith and repentance in the elect and leaving the righteous incapable to their inevitable path to destruction. And Christ does indeed love them by allowing them any necessitates or pleasure in life whatsoever. But Christ does not exhibit his to the reprobate as He does for the elect. All are shown mercy from God to an extent, but the elect don't have the wrath of God upon them.

There but for the grace of God...because all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God.

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
8 hours ago, Placable37 said:

Hi atpollard, It appears you are not happy at the prospect of justification being available to all humanity, even though this is a valid interpretation of Romans 5:18 to be accepted in faith, with support from other Scriptures. This does not mean that justification is applied to all humanity. The next verse teaches that Adam's disobedience made many people sinners, not just a few people but many, and not all humanity because it didn't make Christ a sinner, rather He who knew no sin was made sin on behalf of many people, not a few, that many people, not a few, might be made the righteousness of God in Him (2 Corinthians 5:21).

Romans 5:19 For as through the one man’s disobedience many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the one, many will be made righteous.

Nothing would make me happier than for Justification to be available to all humanity; that is exactly what I was taught in the Church of God where I first learned about the concept of actually reading the Bible and the existence of precepts and typologies running from Genesis to Revelation and all pointing to Jesus Christ.  What I am not happy with is the insertion of "available" into verses where it does not appear ... like Romans 5:18.

 

  • [Rom 5:18 NASB] So then as through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness there resulted justification of life to all men.

So did Adams sin condemn all men with a fallen nature, or did it only make a fallen nature "available" to all men?  Where does this teaching on sinless perfection at birth and the human choice to embrace a fallen nature appear in the verse or anywhere else in scripture ... it doesn't!

 

Where does the word "available" appear in the verse with relationship to Justification ... it doesn't!  Where does the concept appear in the verse?  I honestly do not see anything in the verse to suggest it.

What does it say about the "resulted justification" that came from "one act of righteousness" (the death of Jesus Christ on a cross for our sin) if it is only "available" to all.  How is the verse not a lie if it "resulted" in the justification of none, but only the "availability" of justification for all?  How can salvation be by faith through grace with no cause for any man to boast if Christ only made Justification "available" and someone else, like MAN?, needs to close the deal?

 

Fortunately, scripture does not say "available".  Scripture says from Jesus' death ("one act of righteousness") RESULTED (to proceed or arise as a consequence, effect, or conclusion)  JUSTIFICATION (make righteous in the sight of God).

 

Could you describe what sort of "justification" resulted from one act of righteousness that only makes it "available" to all men?

I have trouble comprehending the death of God on a cross as an anemic act that actually saves no one but only makes salvation available for all to grab for themselves.

 

 

  • Like 1
  • ouch 1

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
16 hours ago, atpollard said:

Nothing would make me happier than for Justification to be available to all humanity; that is exactly what I was taught in the Church of God where I first learned about the concept of actually reading the Bible and the existence of precepts and typologies running from Genesis to Revelation and all pointing to Jesus Christ.  What I am not happy with is the insertion of "available" into verses where it does not appear ... like Romans 5:18.

 

  • [Rom 5:18 NASB] So then as through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness there resulted justification of life to all men.

So did Adams sin condemn all men with a fallen nature, or did it only make a fallen nature "available" to all men?  Where does this teaching on sinless perfection at birth and the human choice to embrace a fallen nature appear in the verse or anywhere else in scripture ... it doesn't!

 

Where does the word "available" appear in the verse with relationship to Justification ... it doesn't!  Where does the concept appear in the verse?  I honestly do not see anything in the verse to suggest it.

What does it say about the "resulted justification" that came from "one act of righteousness" (the death of Jesus Christ on a cross for our sin) if it is only "available" to all.  How is the verse not a lie if it "resulted" in the justification of none, but only the "availability" of justification for all?  How can salvation be by faith through grace with no cause for any man to boast if Christ only made Justification "available" and someone else, like MAN?, needs to close the deal?

 

Fortunately, scripture does not say "available".  Scripture says from Jesus' death ("one act of righteousness") RESULTED (to proceed or arise as a consequence, effect, or conclusion)  JUSTIFICATION (make righteous in the sight of God).

 

Could you describe what sort of "justification" resulted from one act of righteousness that only makes it "available" to all men?

I have trouble comprehending the death of God on a cross as an anemic act that actually saves no one but only makes salvation available for all to grab for themselves.

 

 

Here's the thing, with which Calvin agrees:

From Albert Barnes' Notes On The Bible ~Romans 5:18

Quote

It does not prove that all will in fact be saved, but that the plan is suited to meet all the evils of the fall. A certain kind of medicine may have an original applicability to heal all persons under the same disease; and may be abundant and certain, and yet in fact be applied to few. The sun is suited to give light to all, yet many may be blind, or may voluntarily close their eyes. Water is adapted to the needs of all people, and the supply may be ample for the human family, yet in fact, from various causes, many may be deprived of it. So of the provisions of the plan of redemption. They are adapted to all; they are ample, and yet in fact, from causes which this is not the place to explain, the benefits, like those of medicine, water, science, etc. may never be enjoyed by all the race. Calvin concurs in this interpretation, and thus shows, that it is one which commends itself even to the most strenuous advocates of the system which is called by his name. He says, “He (the apostle) makes the grace common to all, because it is offered to all, not because it is in fact applied to all. For although Christ suffered for the sins or the whole world (nam etsi passus est Christus pro peccatis totius mundi), and it is offered to all without distinction (indifferenter), yet all do not embrace it.” See Cal. Commentary on this place. 

 

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
13 hours ago, Placable37 said:

Here's the thing, with which Calvin agrees:

I'll read it and comment later (when I have more time), but just to set the record straight ... no Calvinist really cares what Calvin said about anything.  Those who embrace Reformed Theology and Calvinist Soteriology are HUGE fans of sola scriptura and really only care what the Bible says as the ultimate authority in all matters.  It was the Lutherans who first began calling the new Reformers "Calvinists", just as it was the enemies of Christianity that fist called the followers of Jesus "Christians" (intended as an insult) and it was the RCC that first started calling the followers of the early German reformation "Lutherans" (also intended as an insult).  Calvinists do not follow Calvin.  We really get tired of people assuming that we place the writings of Calvin above Holy Scripture.

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
Staff

John Calvin differentiates between common grace and effectual grace (Irresistible Grace). No doubt the suffering and sacrifice provided at the Cross by Jesus' Christ in the propitiation and atonement were "sufficient" to cover the sins of the entire world, however, they are only efficient by design for the Elect (Limited Atonement). The outward call of the Gospel goes out to every man without distinction (repent and believe) but only those who receive the inward call (regeneration) are actually capable of responding in faith and repentance to the object of which they are drawn (In grammatical terms the words "repent and believe" both function as a synecdoche—the figure of speech in which a part is used for the whole. Thus, repentance implies faith and faith implies repentance. One cannot exist without the other).

 

Common Grace: a theological concept, primarily in Reformed and Calvinistic circles, referring to God’s common patience or forbearance with sinful man ... the non-saving sustaining grace of God that is common to all humankind. It is “common” because its benefits are experienced by, or intended for, the whole human race without distinction between one person and another. It is "grace" because it is undeserved and sovereignly bestowed by God. In this sense, it is distinguished from the Calvinistic understanding of "special" or "saving" grace, which extends only to those whom God has chosen to redeem. An example of the concept can be found in the idea that God allows the sun to shine upon both the righteous and the unrighteous and sends rain on both the just and unjust.

  • Matthew 5:45 so that you may be sons of your Father who is in heaven. For he makes his sun rise on the evil and on the good, and sends rain on the just and on the unjust.

Effectual grace: The Bible "locates unbelief in the total inability of sinners to effect their own liberation from the bondage of the will, and ... locate faith in the unconditional election, redemption, and effectual calling of the triune God alone. God gives not only sufficient grace (that is, enough grace to enable sinners to respond positively to God if they choose to do so), but efficient grace (that is, regeneration as well as faith and repentance as gifts)."
- Michael Horton The Christian Faith, pg. 562

 

Regeneration is a secret act of God in which he imparts new spiritual life to us. As the gospel comes to us, God speaks through it to summon us to himself (effective calling) and to give us new spiritual life (regeneration) so that we are enabled to respond in faith. Effective calling is thus God that Father speaking powerfully to us, and regeneration is God that Father and God the Holy Spirit working powerfully in us, to make us alive. Sometimes the term irresistible grace is used in this connection. It refers to the fact that God effectively calls people and also gives them regeneration, and both actions guarantee that we will respond in saving faith. The term irresistible grace is subject to misunderstanding, however, since it seems to imply that people do not make a voluntary choice in responding to the gospel - a wrong idea, and a wrong understanding of the term irresistible grace. The term does preserve something valuable, however, because it indicates that God's work reaches into our hearts to bring about a response that is absolutely certain - even tough we respond voluntarily.
Wayne Grudem from Systematic Theology (pg. 699)

  • John 6:37-39 and 44 All that the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will by no means cast out. For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me. This is the will of the Father who sent Me, that of all He has given Me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up at the last day...No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him, and I will raise him up at the last day.

God bless,

William

  • Like 2
  • Toast 1

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites
9 hours ago, atpollard said:

I'll read it and comment later (when I have more time), but just to set the record straight ... no Calvinist really cares what Calvin said about anything.  Those who embrace Reformed Theology and Calvinist Soteriology are HUGE fans of sola scriptura and really only care what the Bible says as the ultimate authority in all matters.  It was the Lutherans who first began calling the new Reformers "Calvinists", just as it was the enemies of Christianity that fist called the followers of Jesus "Christians" (intended as an insult) and it was the RCC that first started calling the followers of the early German reformation "Lutherans" (also intended as an insult).  Calvinists do not follow Calvin.  We really get tired of people assuming that we place the writings of Calvin above Holy Scripture.

Yes, I am patently aware of all this, but please don't think anyone or their theses are being elevated above Scripture just because reference to them is made. @William in his prior post reliably and succinctly covers the principle being discussed in line with my OP, thankyou William.

  • Like 1
  • Love 1

Share this post


Link to post
Share on other sites

Create an account or sign in to comment

You need to be a member in order to leave a comment

Create an account

Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!

Register a new account

Sign in

Already have an account? Sign in here.

Sign In Now

×
×
  • Create New...